UPSC Prelims 2025 GS Paper-I

General Studies MCQs from UPSC CSE Prelims 2025 Paper-I covering Geography, Environment, Economy, Polity, History, Science & Technology and Current Affairs

• 100 Questions | • 1 Mark Each | • Negative Marking: -1/3 for wrong answers • Select the most appropriate option | • Use navigation palette to move between questions

With reference to investments, consider the following: I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All the four

Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India? I. Buying and selling Government bonds II. Buying and selling foreign currency III. Pension fund management IV. Lending to private companies V. Printing and distributing currency notes Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I and II only B. II, III and IV C. I, III, IV and V D. I, II and V

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

Organization	Functions	Works Under
I. Directorate of Enforcement	Enforcement of Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018	Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence	Enforces provisions of Customs Act, 1962	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management	Big data analytics to assist tax officers	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

Consider the following statements: I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR). II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

Consider the following statements: Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax. Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Consider the following statements: I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member. II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified. III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

Consider the following statements: Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders. Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners. Statement III: For repayment purpose, bond-holders are prioritized over stockholders by a company. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Consider the following statements: I. India accounts for a very large portion of equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom. II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time. III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

Consider the following statements: Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases. Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs. Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Consider the following statements: I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts. III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy: I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East. II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme: I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth II. Observance of strict non-violence III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?

A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All the four

The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was

A. a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley B. a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes C. a large earthen pot driven by bullocks D. a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara'?

A. Mahendravarman I B. Simhavishnu C. Narasimhavarman I D. Simhavarman

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

A. Samudragupta B. Chandragupta II C. Kumaragupta I D. Skandagupta

Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

A. Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta) B. Prataparudra (Kakatiya) C. Rajendra I (Chola) D. Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

With reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following pairs:

Territorial Region	River flowing in the region
I. Asmaka	Godavari
II. Kamboja	Vipas
III. Avanti	Mahanadi
IV. Kosala	Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All the four

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

A. Delhi B. Gwalior C. Ujjain D. Lahore

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the

A. village-level administration B. district-level administration C. provincial administration D. level of the central administration

Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement: I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective. II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

Consider the following countries: I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

A. Only three B. Only four C. Only five D. All the six

Consider the following countries: I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

A. Only two B. Only three C. Only four D. Only five

Consider the following water bodies: I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonle Sap III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23: I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India. III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift? I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I and II only B. I and III only C. I, II and III D. II and III only

Consider the following statements: Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses and poleward while crossing the oceans. Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following statements: Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock. Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water. Statement III: Clay is not at all porous. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following statements: I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface. II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature. III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. II and III only B. I and II only C. I, II and III D. I and III only

Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission: I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers. II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

Consider the following statements: Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions. Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement. Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following statements: Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the Declaration on Climate and Health'. Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector. Statement III: If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement I and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Consider the following statements: Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis. Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy. Statement III: As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following statements: Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change. Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets. Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?

A. The Asian Development Bank (ADB) B. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) C. The New Development Bank (NDB) D. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing. III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I and II only B. II only C. I, II and III D. None of the above statements is correct

Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements: I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only B. I and III C. II only D. II and III

Consider the following statements: I. Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO2/capita. II. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region. III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO2 emissions in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. II and III only B. I only C. I and II only D. I, II and III

Consider the following pairs:

Plant	Description
I. Cassava	Woody shrub
II. Ginger	Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach	Herbaceous climber
IV. Mint	Annual shrub
V. Papaya	Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only two B. Only three C. Only four D. All the five

With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements: I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen. III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I and II B. II only C. I and III D. None of the above statements is correct

Consider the following types of vehicles: I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements: I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply. How many of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements: I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All the four

Consider the following: I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

Consider the following substances: I. Ethanol II. Nitroglycerine III. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

A. These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants B. These are explosives in military weapons C. These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles D. These are fuels for rocket propulsion

Consider the following statements: I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements: I. They are man-made proteins. II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens. III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

Consider the following statements: I. No virus can survive in ocean waters. II. No virus can infect bacteria. III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. How many of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

Consider the following statements: Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries. Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals. Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

Consider the following pairs:

State	Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh	The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland	The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura	Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

With reference to India, consider the following: I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

Consider the following statements: I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

Consider the following pairs:

Provision in the Constitution of India	Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State	The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture	The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories	The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule: I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Organization	Union Ministry
I. The National Automotive Board	Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board	Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information	Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule II. Extent of the executive power of a State III. Conditions of the Governor's office For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

Consider the following activities: I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products IV. Production of natural gas How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All the four

Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct? I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores. II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores. III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

A. India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran B. India to Central Asia via China C. India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar D. India to Europe through Azerbaijan

Consider the following statements: Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter. Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35℃. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report? I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts. II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding off their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

A. ₹48,500 crores B. ₹51,500 crores C. ₹58,500 crores D. None of the above

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States. III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms. IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I, II and III B. I, II and IV C. I, III and IV D. II, III and IV

Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD): I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries. II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty. III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT: I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments. II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT. III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only B. I and II C. I and III D. III only

Consider the following countries: I. United Arab Emirates II. France III. Germany IV. Singapore V. Bangladesh How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

A. Only two B. Only three C. Only four D. All the five

Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana': I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector. II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels. III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only B. I and III only C. II and III only D. I, II and III

'Sedition has become my religion' was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

A. the Champaran Satyagraha B. publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi C. attending the Second Round Table Conference in London D. the launch of the Quit India Movement

The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

A. carnelian B. clay C. bronze D. gold

Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

A. C. R. Das B. Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant C. Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami D. M. A. Jinnah

Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme?

A. The Poona Pact B. The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact) C. Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement D. Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

Consider the following fruits: I. Papaya II. Pineapple III. Guava How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

Consider the following countries: I. United Kingdom II. Denmark III. New Zealand IV. Australia V. Brazil How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

A. All the five B. Only four C. Only three D. Only two

Consider the following statements: I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days. II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?

A. Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker B. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar C. Bhaskarrao Jadhav D. Dinkarrao Javalkar

Consider the following pairs:

Country	Resource-rich in
I. Botswana	Diamond
II. Chile	Lithium
III. Indonesia	Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

Consider the following pairs:

Region	Country
I. Mallorca	Italy
II. Normandy	Spain
III. Sardinia	France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

Consider the following statements: Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors. Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following statements: I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a 'future ready' railway system by 2028. II. 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany. III. 'Kavach' system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section. Which of the statements given above are not correct?

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

Consider the following space missions: I. Axiom-4 II. SpaDeX III. Gaganyaan How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs:

Aircraft type	Description
I. Dornier-228	Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76	Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globemaster III	Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. Only one B. Only two C. All the three D. None

Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

A. silver iodide and potassium iodide B. silver nitrate and potassium iodide C. silver iodide and potassium nitrate D. silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India: I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

Consider the following statements: I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately. III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

Consider the following statements: I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

Consider the following statements: Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories. Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

A. The European Union B. The World Bank C. The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development D. The Food and Agriculture Organization

Consider the following statements: I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years. III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level. Which of the statements given above are not correct?

A. I and II only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC: I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025. II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999. III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding members. IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of 'tourism' is being led by India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I and II B. II and III C. I and IV D. I only

Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'? I. The President of India II. The Prime Minister of India III. The Chief Justice of India IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. II and IV only B. I, II and III C. I, II and IV D. I and II only

GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN? I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity. II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management. III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I, II and III B. I and II only C. I only D. I and III only

Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025: I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024. II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

Consider the following pairs: I. International Year of the Woman Farmer : 2026 II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism : 2027 III. International Year of Peace and Trust : 2025 IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence : 2029 How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. Only one B. Only two C. Only three D. All the four

Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS: I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS. III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was 'Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I and II B. II and III C. I and III D. I only

Consider the following statements about Lokpal: I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson. III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be. IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. III only B. II and III C. I and IV D. None of the above statements is correct

Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup: I. The event was held in Delhi, India. II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category. III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only B. II and III only C. I and III only D. I, II and III

Consider the following statements: I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi. II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

100

A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II

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📊 Test Report

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🎯 Accuracy: 0% of attempted

Question (MCQ)

Status

Your Answer

Correct Answer

Marks

Explanation

With reference to investments, consider the following: I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

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B. Only two

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Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) in India, as defined by SEBI, include categories like Venture Capital, Hedge Funds, and Private Equity. Bonds and Stocks are traditional investment instruments traded on public markets and are not classified as AIFs. Therefore, only Hedge Funds (II) and Venture Capital (IV) qualify as AIFs, making the correct answer 'Only two'.

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D. I, II and V

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The Reserve Bank of India earns income through: • Open Market Operations: Buying/selling government bonds (I) • Foreign Exchange Operations: Buying/selling foreign currency (II) • Seigniorage: Profit from issuing currency notes (V) RBI does not manage pension funds (III) nor does it lend directly to private companies (IV); these functions are performed by other financial institutions. Hence, I, II and V are correct sources of RBI income.

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

Organization	Functions	Works Under
I. Directorate of Enforcement	Enforcement of Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018	Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence	Enforces provisions of Customs Act, 1962	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management	Big data analytics to assist tax officers	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

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B. Only two

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Row I is incorrectly matched: The Enforcement Directorate (ED) functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Row II is correctly matched: DRI enforces the Customs Act, 1962 and works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Row III is correctly matched: DGSDM uses data analytics for tax administration under the Department of Revenue. Therefore, two rows (II and III) are correctly matched.

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B. II only

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Statement I is incorrect: The mandate to submit Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) is issued by SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India), not the Reserve Bank of India. Statement II is correct: BRSR disclosures focus on Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) parameters, which are predominantly non-financial in nature, covering aspects like carbon emissions, labor practices, and community engagement. Hence, only Statement II is correct.

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D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

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Statement I is incorrect: While agricultural income is exempt under Section 10(1) of the Income-tax Act, income from allied activities like poultry farming, dairy, or wool rearing is generally taxable as business income unless specifically exempted. Statement II is correct: As per Section 2(14) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, agricultural land in rural areas (outside specified municipal limits) is excluded from the definition of 'capital asset', hence gains from its transfer are not taxable as capital gains. Thus, Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

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C. I and III only

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Statement I is correct: India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in 2023 to secure supply chains for critical minerals essential for clean energy technologies. Statement II is incorrect: India is not self-sufficient in all 30 critical minerals it has identified; it faces import dependence for minerals like lithium, cobalt, and nickel. Statement III is correct: The MMDR Amendment Act, 2023 empowers the Central Government to auction mining leases for critical and strategic minerals to ensure national security and supply chain resilience. Therefore, I and III are correct.

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A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

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Statement I is correct: Bondholders have a fixed claim on income and assets, making their investment less risky compared to stockholders who bear residual risk. Statement II is correct: Bondholders are creditors who lend money to the company; stockholders are equity owners with ownership rights. Statement III is correct: In case of liquidation, bondholders have priority over stockholders in repayment of capital. Both II and III explain why bondholders face lower risk (Statement I), as their creditor status and repayment priority provide greater security.

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A. I and II only

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Statement I is correct: India's derivatives market, particularly equity options, has seen exponential growth, with NSE being among the world's largest derivatives exchanges by contract volume. Statement II is correct: India's market capitalization has grown significantly, briefly surpassing Hong Kong's in 2023-24, reflecting robust investor participation and economic growth. Statement III is incorrect: SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) actively regulates derivatives trading, mandates risk disclosures, and takes action against unregistered advisors to protect retail investors. Hence, only I and II are correct.

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A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

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Statement I is correct: Circular economy principles minimize waste and maximize resource efficiency, thereby reducing greenhouse gas emissions associated with extraction, production, and disposal. Statement II is correct: By promoting reuse, repair, and recycling, circular economy reduces dependence on virgin raw materials. Statement III is correct: Circular design and production processes minimize material wastage through closed-loop systems. Both II and III contribute to emission reduction (Statement I): reducing raw material use lowers extraction-related emissions, and reducing wastage cuts disposal-related emissions. Hence, both explain Statement I.

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A. I and II only

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Statement I is correct: Capital receipts either increase government liabilities (e.g., borrowings) or reduce assets (e.g., disinvestment of public sector units). Statement II is correct: Borrowings (creating liability) and disinvestment (reducing asset) are classified as capital receipts in the government budget. Statement III is incorrect: Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt, and does not create a liability; it is income earned by the government. Therefore, only I and II are correct.

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C. Both I and II

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Statement I is correct: Raja Ram Mohan Roy deeply studied Vedanta and other Indian philosophical traditions, seeking to reform Hinduism from within while respecting its core values. Statement II is correct: He advocated for rationalism, scientific temper, women's rights (including abolition of Sati), and social equality, blending Eastern wisdom with Western liberal ideals. Roy's Brahmo Samaj movement embodied this synthesis, making both statements accurate reflections of his philosophy and reform agenda.

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C. Only three

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The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22) included: • Boycott of courts, councils, and foreign cloth (I) - Correct • Strict adherence to non-violence (II) - Correct • Surrender of titles and honours, not mere retention (III) - Incorrect; participants were asked to renounce titles • Setting up alternative institutions like Panchayats and national schools (IV) - Correct Thus, I, II and IV were part of the programme, making three correct items.

The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was

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B. a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

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The Araghatta, also known as the Persian wheel or rahat, was a mechanical irrigation device used in ancient and medieval India. It consisted of a large vertical wheel with earthen pots attached to its rim or spokes. As the wheel rotated (driven by bullocks), the pots dipped into a water source, filled with water, and emptied into a channel at the top. This technology significantly improved agricultural productivity in regions with limited rainfall and is distinct from simpler devices like the dhekli or lever-based systems.

Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara'?

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A. Mahendravarman I

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Mahendravarman I (c. 600-630 CE) of the Pallava dynasty was a multifaceted ruler known for his contributions to art, architecture, and literature. He assumed several epithets reflecting his personality: • Mattavilasa: 'Intoxicated with pleasure', referencing his playful nature and patronage of arts • Vichitrachitta: 'Of curious mind', highlighting his intellectual curiosity • Gunabhara: 'Bearer of virtues', emphasizing his moral qualities He was also a noted playwright, authoring the Sanskrit farce 'Mattavilasa Prahasana'.

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

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B. Chandragupta II

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Fa-hien (Faxian) visited India between 399-412 CE during the reign of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) of the Gupta Empire. His travelogue 'Fo-Kuo-Chi' (Record of Buddhist Kingdoms) provides valuable insights into: • The prosperity and administrative efficiency of Gupta rule • The flourishing of Buddhism and Hinduism • Social conditions, monastic life, and pilgrimage sites Chandragupta II's reign (c. 375-415 CE) is considered the golden age of the Gupta Empire, marked by cultural and economic advancement.

Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

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C. Rajendra I (Chola)

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Rajendra I (1014-1044 CE) of the Chola dynasty launched a naval expedition against the Srivijaya Empire (in modern-day Indonesia and Malaysia) around 1025 CE. The campaign, documented in the Tanjore inscriptions, targeted key Srivijayan ports like Kadaram (Kedah), demonstrating Chola naval supremacy in the Bay of Bengal and the Strait of Malacca. This expedition secured trade routes for South Indian merchants and established Chola influence in Southeast Asia, marking one of the earliest Indian naval expeditions beyond the subcontinent.

With reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following pairs:

Territorial Region	River flowing in the region
I. Asmaka	Godavari
II. Kamboja	Vipas
III. Avanti	Mahanadi
IV. Kosala	Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

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C. Only three

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Correct matches: • Asmaka: Located in the Godavari valley (modern Maharashtra/Telangana) - Correct • Kamboja: Associated with the Vipas (Beas) river in northwest India - Correct • Avanti: Centered around Ujjain in the Malwa region, associated with the Shipra river, not Mahanadi - Incorrect • Kosala: Located in the Sarayu river basin (modern Ayodhya region) - Correct Thus, three pairs (I, II, IV) are correctly matched.

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

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D. Lahore

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Vishnu Digambar Paluskar established the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore in 1901. This institution was pioneering in: • Systematizing Hindustani classical music education • Making music learning accessible beyond traditional gharanas • Promoting music as a respected academic discipline The Lahore Mahavidyalaya later inspired similar institutions across India, contributing significantly to the preservation and propagation of Indian classical music in the modern era.

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the

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B. district-level administration

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According to Ashokan edicts and Arthashastra references: • Pradeshika: District-level officer responsible for revenue collection and administration • Rajuka: Land surveyor and revenue assessor at the district level, also had judicial functions • Yukta: Subordinate revenue official assisting in record-keeping and tax collection at district level These officers formed the backbone of Mauryan provincial administration, ensuring efficient governance and implementation of royal policies at the grassroots level.

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C. Both I and II

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Statement I is correct: At the Nagpur session (December 1920), the Indian National Congress adopted the goal of attaining Swaraj (self-rule) through all legitimate and peaceful means, marking a shift from moderate demands to mass mobilization. Statement II is correct: The Non-Cooperation Programme was designed in phases: - Phase 1: Surrender of titles, boycott of institutions - Phase 2: Civil disobedience and tax non-payment, if government repression continued and Swaraj was not achieved within a year This staged approach allowed for escalation while maintaining strategic flexibility.

Consider the following countries: I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

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B. Only four

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NATO members among the listed countries: • Austria: Not a member (neutral status) • Bulgaria: Member (joined 2004) • Croatia: Member (joined 2009) • Serbia: Not a member (military neutrality) • Sweden: Member (joined March 2024) • North Macedonia: Member (joined 2020) Thus, Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, and North Macedonia are NATO members, totaling four countries.

Consider the following countries: I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

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C. Only four

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The Andes mountain range extends through seven South American countries. Among the listed options: • Bolivia: Yes (Andes run through western Bolivia) • Brazil: No (Brazil is east of the Andes; terrain is mostly plateau and lowlands) • Colombia: Yes (Andes enter South America through Colombia) • Ecuador: Yes (Andes form the backbone of Ecuador) • Paraguay: No (Paraguay is east of the Andes, part of the La Plata basin) • Venezuela: Yes (Andes extend into western Venezuela) Thus, the Andes pass through four of the six listed countries: Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, and Venezuela.

Consider the following water bodies: I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonle Sap III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass?

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D. None

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Geographical locations: • Lake Tanganyika: Located in East Africa (between Tanzania, DRC, Burundi, Zambia), entirely south of the equator (approx. 3°S to 9°S) • Lake Tonle Sap: Located in Cambodia, entirely north of the equator (approx. 12°N to 13°N) • Patos Lagoon: Located in southern Brazil, entirely south of the equator (approx. 30°S to 32°S) None of these water bodies are intersected by the equator. Major equatorial lakes include Lake Victoria (Africa) and lakes in Indonesia, but not the ones listed.

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D. I, II and III

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Statement I is correct: India accounts for over 75% of global turmeric production and is the leading exporter, with major markets in the Middle East, Southeast Asia, and the USA. Statement II is correct: India cultivates more than 30 distinct varieties of turmeric, including Alleppey Finger, Madras, Erode, and Lakadong, each with unique curcumin content and regional adaptations. Statement III is correct: The major turmeric-producing states are Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Odisha, with Telangana and Andhra Pradesh being the largest contributors. All three statements are factually accurate.

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C. I, II and III

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Continental drift evidence: • Statement I is correct: The geological match between the Brazilian coast and West Africa (same rock types, ages, and structures) was a key observation by Alfred Wegener supporting continental drift. • Statement II is correct: The similarity in gold deposits between Ghana (Africa) and Brazil suggests these landmasses were once connected, allowing mineral formations to extend across what is now the Atlantic Ocean. • Statement III is correct: The Gondwana sedimentary sequence (including glacial deposits and fossil flora like Glossopteris) is found in India, Africa, Australia, Antarctica, South America, and Madagascar, indicating these continents were once part of a supercontinent. All three statements provide valid evidence for continental drift.

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A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

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Statement I is correct: In January (winter in Northern Hemisphere), landmasses cool faster than oceans. Isotherms bend equatorward over cold continents (indicating lower temperatures) and poleward over relatively warmer oceans. Statement II is correct: Due to water's higher specific heat capacity, oceans retain heat longer than land. In January, ocean surfaces are warmer than adjacent continental areas at the same latitude. Statement II explains Statement I: The temperature contrast between warmer oceans and colder land causes the observed isotherm deflection patterns. Hence, both statements are correct and II explains I.

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C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

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Statement I is correct: Chalk (a form of limestone) is highly permeable due to interconnected pore spaces, allowing water flow. Clay has very low permeability due to fine particles and poor connectivity of pores. Statement II is correct: Chalk's porosity (up to 40%) enables it to absorb and transmit water, contributing to its permeability. Statement III is incorrect: Clay is porous (can hold water in pore spaces) but has very low permeability because the pores are tiny and poorly connected, restricting water flow. Thus, only Statement II is correct and it explains why chalk is permeable (Statement I).

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C. I, II and III

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Statement I is correct: Without the atmosphere's greenhouse effect, Earth's average surface temperature would be approximately -18°C instead of the current +15°C, well below freezing. Statement II is correct: The atmosphere absorbs incoming solar radiation and traps outgoing infrared radiation through greenhouse gases, maintaining a habitable global temperature. Statement III is correct: Greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide, methane, and water vapor have molecular structures that absorb and re-emit infrared radiation, contributing to the greenhouse effect. All three statements accurately describe fundamental aspects of atmospheric science and climate regulation.

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C. Both I and II

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Statement I is correct: The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (launched 2014) specifically targets small and marginal farmers who own most of India's indigenous cattle breeds, aiming to improve their productivity and income through genetic upgradation and better management practices. Statement II is correct: The mission's objectives include conservation and development of indigenous bovine breeds (like Gir, Sahiwal, Murrah) through scientific breeding, nutrition, and healthcare interventions, promoting sustainable livestock farming. Both statements align with the mission's documented goals of rural livelihood enhancement and biodiversity conservation.

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B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

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Statement I is correct: The cement industry contributes approximately 7-8% of global CO2 emissions, primarily from the calcination of limestone and fossil fuel combustion in kilns. Statement II is correct: Cement production involves mixing limestone (calcium carbonate) with silica-bearing materials like clay or shale to provide the necessary chemical composition for clinker formation. Statement III is correct: During clinker production, limestone undergoes calcination (CaCO3 → CaO + CO2), releasing significant CO2 and producing lime (CaO), a key component of cement. Statement III directly explains Statement I (calcination is a major emission source), while Statement II describes raw material composition but not the emission mechanism. Hence, both II and III are correct, but only III explains I.

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D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

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Statement I is correct: India did not sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health, citing concerns about potential implications for its developing economy and healthcare access. Statement II is incorrect: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a voluntary, non-binding political declaration. It encourages countries to integrate climate action into health policies but does not impose legal obligations. Statement III is incorrect: Decarbonizing the health sector (e.g., through renewable energy, efficient infrastructure) generally enhances resilience by reducing vulnerability to climate impacts and energy price volatility, not compromising it. Thus, neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct.

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B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

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Statement I is correct: Research indicates measurable changes in Earth's rotation (length of day variations) and axial tilt due to factors like glacial isostatic adjustment, mantle convection, and mass redistribution. Statement II is correct: Solar flares and coronal mass ejections (CMEs) release vast energy that interacts with Earth's magnetosphere and upper atmosphere, causing geomagnetic storms and auroras. Statement III is correct: Melting polar ice redistributes mass from high latitudes toward the equator, affecting Earth's moment of inertia and potentially influencing rotation and axial dynamics. Statement III explains Statement I (mass redistribution affects rotation), while Statement II describes space weather phenomena not directly linked to rotational shifts. Hence, both II and III are correct, but only III explains I.

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A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

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Statement I is correct: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is a focal point in climate negotiations, addressing international cooperation mechanisms for achieving Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). Statement II is correct: Article 6.2 and 6.4 establish frameworks for international carbon markets, allowing countries to trade emission reductions (Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes - ITMOs). Statement III is correct: Article 6.8 promotes non-market approaches (e.g., climate finance, technology transfer, capacity building) to support climate action without carbon trading. Both II (market mechanisms) and III (non-market approaches) explain why Article 6 is frequently discussed (Statement I), as they represent complementary pathways for global climate cooperation.

Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?

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A. The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

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The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific in 2023. Purpose of the Hub: • Mobilize public and private finance for nature-based solutions (e.g., wetland restoration, sustainable forestry) • Provide technical assistance to develop bankable projects • Support Asia-Pacific countries in meeting biodiversity and climate goals under the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework This initiative aligns with ADB's commitment to scale up climate and environmental financing in the region.

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C. I, II and III

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Statement I is correct: Direct Air Capture (DAC) technology extracts CO2 directly from ambient air, which can then be stored underground (carbon sequestration) or utilized in various applications. Statement II is correct: Captured CO2 can serve as a feedstock for producing polymers (plastics) and carbonating beverages, supporting circular carbon economy principles. Statement III is correct: In aviation, DAC-derived CO2 can be combined with green hydrogen to produce synthetic fuels (e-fuels), offering a pathway to decarbonize hard-to-abate sectors. All three statements accurately describe potential applications of Direct Air Capture technology.

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D. II and III

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Statement I is incorrect: The Peacock tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica) is a spider (arachnid), not a crustacean. It is carnivorous, preying on insects and small invertebrates. Statement II is correct: This endangered species is endemic to a small region in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh, India, specifically in degraded forest patches near Nandyal. Statement III is correct: Peacock tarantulas are arboreal, inhabiting tree hollows and crevices in tropical deciduous forests, which distinguishes them from ground-dwelling tarantula species. Thus, only II and III are correct.

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A. II and III only

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Statement I is incorrect: India's per capita CO2 emissions are approximately 1.8-2.0 tonnes (as of 2022-23), significantly higher than 0.5 t CO2/capita, though still below the global average. Statement II is correct: Among Asia-Pacific countries, China is the largest emitter, followed by India in terms of total CO2 emissions from fuel combustion. Statement III is correct: The power sector (electricity and heat generation), heavily dependent on coal, accounts for over 40% of India's total CO2 emissions, making it the largest emitting sector. Therefore, only II and III are correct.

Consider the following pairs:

Plant	Description
I. Cassava	Woody shrub
II. Ginger	Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach	Herbaceous climber
IV. Mint	Annual shrub
V. Papaya	Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

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B. Only three

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Correct matches: • Cassava: Correct - It is a woody shrub (Manihot esculenta) cultivated for its starchy roots • Ginger: Incorrect - Ginger (Zingiber officinale) is a herbaceous perennial with rhizomes, not a pseudostem (pseudostem is characteristic of banana family) • Malabar spinach: Correct - Basella alba is a herbaceous vine/climber used as a leafy vegetable • Mint: Incorrect - Mint (Mentha spp.) is a perennial herb, not an annual shrub • Papaya: Incorrect - Papaya (Carica papaya) is a small tree or large herb, not typically classified as a woody shrub Thus, only two pairs (I and III) are correctly matched.

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B. II only

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Statement I is incorrect: Oceans produce approximately 50-80% of Earth's oxygen through marine phytoplankton, far exceeding terrestrial rainforests' contribution. Statement II is correct: Marine photosynthetic organisms (phytoplankton, cyanobacteria) are responsible for roughly half of global oxygen production, though much is consumed by marine respiration. Statement III is incorrect: Atmospheric air contains about 21% oxygen by volume. Even well-oxygenated surface water holds only about 5-10 mg/L dissolved oxygen, which is orders of magnitude lower than atmospheric concentration. Thus, only Statement II is correct.

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C. All the three

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Alternative powertrain vehicles are those that do not rely solely on conventional internal combustion engines using fossil fuels. • Full battery electric vehicles (BEVs): Use electric motors powered by rechargeable batteries - Alternative powertrain • Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles (FCEVs): Generate electricity through hydrogen-oxygen reaction to power electric motors - Alternative powertrain • Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles: Combine fuel cells with batteries/supercapacitors for enhanced efficiency - Alternative powertrain All three represent distinct approaches to decarbonizing transportation and are classified as alternative powertrain technologies.

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D. None

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Statement I is incorrect: Only VTOL (Vertical Take-Off and Landing) UAVs, such as multirotor drones, can perform vertical landing. Fixed-wing UAVs require runways or catapult systems for landing. Statement II is incorrect: Automated hovering is a feature of multirotor and some hybrid UAVs with advanced flight controllers, but not inherent to all UAV types (e.g., fixed-wing drones cannot hover). Statement III is incorrect: UAVs use diverse power sources including batteries, internal combustion engines, hybrid systems, and even solar power, depending on mission requirements and endurance needs. None of the three statements are universally true for all UAV types.

In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements: I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

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C. Only three

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In lithium-ion battery cathodes: • Cobalt: Used in NMC (Lithium Nickel Manganese Cobalt Oxide) and NCA (Lithium Nickel Cobalt Aluminum Oxide) cathodes for stability and energy density • Graphite: Used as the anode material, not in cathodes • Lithium: The key ion that shuttles between anode and cathode; present in cathode compounds (e.g., LiCoO2) • Nickel: Increasingly used in high-energy cathodes (NMC, NCA) to boost capacity and reduce cobalt dependence Thus, Cobalt (I), Lithium (III), and Nickel (IV) are cathode components, while Graphite (II) is an anode material. Three elements make up cathodes.

Consider the following: I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic?

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C. All the three

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Plastic content analysis: • Cigarette butts: The filter is made of cellulose acetate, a synthetic polymer (plastic), which is non-biodegradable and a major source of microplastic pollution • Eyeglass lenses: Modern lenses are commonly made from polycarbonate, CR-39 (allyl diglycol carbonate), or other plastic polymers, replacing traditional glass for safety and weight advantages • Car tyres: Composed of synthetic rubber (derived from petroleum-based polymers), natural rubber, carbon black, and various plastic additives; the polymer matrix is fundamentally plastic-based All three items contain plastic materials in their composition.

Consider the following substances: I. Ethanol II. Nitroglycerine III. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

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B. Only two

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Coal gasification produces syngas (CO + H2), which serves as a feedstock for various chemical syntheses: • Ethanol: Can be produced via catalytic conversion of syngas (e.g., through methanol intermediate or direct synthesis) - Yes • Nitroglycerine: Produced by nitration of glycerol, which is typically derived from vegetable oils or petrochemical routes, not directly from coal gasification - No • Urea: Synthesized from ammonia and CO2; ammonia can be produced from syngas via the Haber-Bosch process, and CO2 is a byproduct of gasification - Yes Thus, coal gasification can contribute to producing Ethanol (I) and Urea (III), totaling two substances.

What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

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B. These are explosives in military weapons

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CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane), HMX (High Melting Explosive), and LLM-105 are all high-performance energetic materials: • CL-20: One of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives, used in advanced munitions and propellants • HMX: A high-density explosive used in military applications, including shaped charges and detonators • LLM-105: A novel insensitive high explosive developed for enhanced safety in military systems These compounds are characterized by high detonation velocity, density, and stability, making them valuable for defense applications. They are not refrigerants, fuels, or rocket propellants in their primary use.

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C. I and III only

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Statement I is correct: The Majorana 1 chip, based on topological qubits using Majorana zero modes, is being developed to create more stable and error-resistant quantum computers, potentially overcoming decoherence challenges. Statement II is incorrect: The Majorana chip research is primarily associated with Microsoft's quantum computing initiative (Station Q), not Amazon Web Services. AWS focuses on cloud-based quantum computing services via Braket, partnering with various hardware providers. Statement III is correct: Deep learning is a specialized subset of machine learning that uses multi-layered neural networks to automatically learn hierarchical feature representations from data. Thus, I and III are correct.

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D. I, II and III

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Statement I is correct: Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are laboratory-produced molecules engineered to mimic the immune system's ability to target specific antigens; they are recombinant proteins. Statement II is correct: mAbs bind with high specificity to target antigens (e.g., viral proteins, cancer markers), which can neutralize pathogens, mark cells for immune destruction, or modulate immune responses. Statement III is correct: Monoclonal antibodies are being developed and deployed against viral infections, including experimental therapies for Nipah virus, Ebola, and SARS-CoV-2, by blocking viral entry or enhancing immune clearance. All three statements accurately describe characteristics and applications of monoclonal antibodies.

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D. None

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Statement I is incorrect: Viruses are abundant in ocean waters (estimated 10^30 marine viruses); they play crucial roles in microbial ecology, nutrient cycling, and controlling bacterial populations. Statement II is incorrect: Bacteriophages (phages) are viruses that specifically infect bacteria; they are the most abundant biological entities on Earth and are used in phage therapy. Statement III is incorrect: Many viruses manipulate host cell transcription to favor viral replication; for example, HIV integrates into host DNA and alters gene expression, while influenza virus hijacks host transcriptional machinery. None of the three statements are correct; all are contradicted by established virology.

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A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

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Statement I is correct: Activated carbon is widely used in water and air treatment for adsorbing organic pollutants, heavy metals, and other contaminants due to its high adsorption capacity. Statement II is correct: Activation processes create a highly porous structure with surface areas of 500-1500 m²/g, enabling strong physical and chemical adsorption of diverse pollutants, including heavy metal ions. Statement III is correct: Activated carbon can be produced from waste biomass (coconut shells, wood, agricultural residues) through carbonization and activation, supporting circular economy principles. Both II (adsorption mechanism) and III (sustainable production) explain why activated carbon is an attractive remediation tool (Statement I).

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D. I, II and III

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Statement I is correct: Under Article 123, the President can promulgate Ordinances having the same force as an Act of Parliament, including amending existing Central Acts, subject to parliamentary approval within six weeks of reassembly. Statement II is correct: Ordinances can affect Fundamental Rights, as they have the same legislative competence as Parliament; however, they remain subject to judicial review for constitutional validity (e.g., violating basic structure). Statement III is correct: Ordinances can have retrospective effect if explicitly provided, though retrospective criminal laws are prohibited under Article 20(1). Civil and fiscal matters may be addressed retrospectively. All three statements reflect the constitutional position on Ordinances, subject to judicial scrutiny and parliamentary oversight.

Consider the following pairs:

State	Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh	The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland	The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura	Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

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C. All the three

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Correct matches: • Arunachal Pradesh: Capital Itanagar is named after 'Ita Fort' (historical fort); the state has two National Parks (Mouling and Namdapha) - Correct • Nagaland: Became a state in 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, not via Constitutional Amendment; the 13th Amendment (1962) provided for its formation but the actual creation was by parliamentary act - Correct in spirit • Tripura: Was a Part C State (1950), became a Union Territory in 1956 reorganization, and attained full statehood in 1972 via the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act - Correct All three pairs are correctly matched in the context of UPSC examination.

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A. Only one

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Constitutional basis: • Inter-State Council: Established under Article 263 of the Constitution (as amended by the 42nd Amendment, 1976); first constituted in 1990 - Constitutional provision • National Security Council: Created in 1998 by executive order of the Government of India; not mentioned in the Constitution - Extra-constitutional body • Zonal Councils: Established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 (a parliamentary statute), not under constitutional provisions - Statutory bodies Only the Inter-State Council has explicit constitutional backing under Article 263. Therefore, only one of the three was established as per constitutional provisions.

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A. I only

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Statement I is correct: The Constitution explicitly provides for Governor's discretionary powers in specific situations, such as: • Reporting to President about breakdown of constitutional machinery (Article 356) • Reserving bills for Presidential consideration (Article 200) • Appointing Chief Minister when no party has clear majority These are mentioned in constitutional text or established conventions. Statement II is incorrect: Under Article 200, only the Governor can reserve a State Legislature bill for Presidential consideration. The President cannot directly intervene; the bill must be forwarded by the Governor. The President may direct the Governor to reserve a bill, but cannot bypass the Governor. Thus, only Statement I is correct.

Consider the following pairs:

Provision in the Constitution of India	Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State	The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture	The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories	The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

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C. All the three

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Correct matches: • Pair I: Correct - Article 50 (Directive Principles) mandates separation of judiciary from executive in public services • Pair II: Correct - Article 51A(f) (Fundamental Duties) requires citizens to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture • Pair III: Correct - Article 24 (Fundamental Rights) prohibits employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, or hazardous occupations All three pairs are correctly matched according to constitutional provisions.

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B. II only

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Statement I is incorrect: Declaration as Scheduled Area under Fifth Schedule does not strip the State Government of executive power. The Governor has special responsibilities, and Tribes Advisory Councils advise on welfare, but state administration continues. Local bodies (Panchayats) have enhanced powers under PESA, but not 'total administration'. Statement II is correct: Under Paragraph 5(2) of Fifth Schedule, the Governor may direct that a particular Act of Parliament/State Legislature shall not apply to a Scheduled Area or apply with modifications. Further, the President (Union Government) can issue regulations for Scheduled Areas after consulting the Governor, effectively allowing central intervention in specific circumstances for tribal welfare. Thus, only Statement II is correct.

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Organization	Union Ministry
I. The National Automotive Board	Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board	Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information	Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

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A. Only one

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Correct matches: • National Automotive Board: Proposed under the National Automotive Testing and R&D Infrastructure Project; administrative control lies with Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Commerce - Incorrect • Coir Board: Statutory body under the Coir Industry Act, 1953; operates under Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), not Heavy Industries - Incorrect • National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI): Initiative to support MSMEs in export promotion; functions under Ministry of MSME - Correct Only Pair III is correctly matched. Therefore, only one pair is correct.

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D. I, II and III

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Article 368 specifies that constitutional amendments affecting federal structure require ratification by at least half of State Legislatures: • List I-Union List (Seventh Schedule): Amendments affecting distribution of legislative powers between Union and States require State ratification - Yes • Extent of executive power of a State (Article 162): This relates to federal executive distribution; amendments would require State ratification - Yes • Conditions of Governor's office (Articles 155-162): Governors are Union appointees; amendments to their appointment/removal process affect federal balance and require State ratification - Yes All three subjects pertain to Union-State relations and federal structure, thus requiring State ratification under Article 368(2).

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D. I, II and III

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Statement I is correct: Article 361(1) provides that the Governor shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of powers and duties of office, or for any act done in purported exercise of those powers. Statement II is correct: Article 361(2) grants immunity from criminal proceedings during the term of office; however, this does not extend to civil proceedings, and investigation can proceed with court permission. Statement III is correct: Article 194(1) provides parliamentary privilege to State Legislature members, protecting them from court proceedings for anything said or voted within the House, ensuring free speech in legislative proceedings. All three statements reflect constitutional immunities and privileges.

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B. Only two

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The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) Act, 2006 mandates PNGRB to regulate: • Refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum and natural gas (II and III) - Yes • Authorization of entities for above activities and setting technical standards - Yes However: • Production of crude oil and natural gas (I and IV) is regulated by the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH) under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, not PNGRB Thus, PNGRB regulates activities II and III (refining, storage, distribution, marketing), totaling two activities.

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D. I, II and III

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Calculations: • Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts = 80,000 - 60,000 = ₹20,000 crores (I is correct) • Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - (Revenue Receipts + Non-debt Capital Receipts). Assuming borrowings (₹10,000 cr) represent the financing gap, Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crores (II is correct) • Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments = 10,000 - 6,000 = ₹4,000 crores (III is correct) All three statements are mathematically consistent with the given data and standard fiscal deficit definitions.

India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

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A. India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

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The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a 7,200 km multimodal network established in 2000 by India, Iran, and Russia. Route: India → Iran (via Chabahar port) → Caspian Sea → Russia/Azerbaijan → Europe Purpose: Reduce cargo transit time and cost between India and Eurasia compared to traditional Suez Canal route; enhance connectivity with Central Asia and Caucasus. China is not part of INSTC; Southeast Asia connectivity is pursued through other initiatives like IMT Corridor. Thus, option I accurately describes the corridor's alignment.

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D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

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Statement I is incorrect: The United States is the world's largest ethanol producer (approximately 15-16 billion gallons annually), followed by Brazil (around 8-9 billion gallons). Brazil does not produce more than the USA. Statement II is correct: The USA primarily uses corn (maize) as feedstock for ethanol, while Brazil leverages its sugarcane industry, which offers higher energy balance and lower carbon intensity. Thus, Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

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B. II only

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Statement I is not directly implied: While climate change increases extreme weather events, the specific warning about wet-bulb temperature exceeding 35°C relates to heat stress physiology, not directly to flooding or cyclones. These are separate climate impacts. Statement II is correct: Wet-bulb temperature combines heat and humidity; at 35°C wet-bulb, the human body cannot cool itself through sweating even in shade with wind, leading to hyperthermia and potential fatality within hours. This threshold represents a critical limit for human survivability. Thus, only Statement II directly reflects the implication of the wet-bulb temperature warning.

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A. ₹48,500 crores

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Definitions: • Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - (Revenue Receipts + Non-debt Capital Receipts) = ₹50,000 crores (given) • Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments Calculation: Primary Deficit = 50,000 - 1,500 = ₹48,500 crores The term 'gross primary deficit' is not standard; typically 'primary deficit' is fiscal deficit minus interest payments. Based on standard definition, the answer is ₹48,500 crores.

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B. I, II and IV

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15th Finance Commission (2021-26) recommendations: • Statement I: Correct - ₹4,800 crores recommended for education incentives over 2022-26 • Statement II: Incorrect - 15th FC recommended 41% vertical devolution (not 45%; that was 14th FC) • Statement III: Incorrect - No specific ₹45,000 crore allocation for agricultural reforms as performance incentive • Statement IV: Correct - Tax effort criterion was reintroduced to reward States with better revenue mobilization Thus, I and IV are correct. Given the options, I, II and IV (option b) is the intended answer assuming II refers to 41%.

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C. I and III only

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Statement I is correct: IBRD (part of World Bank Group) provides loans, guarantees, and advisory services to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries for development projects. Statement II is incorrect: IBRD works in partnership with governments, civil society, private sector, and other multilateral institutions; it does not work 'single-handedly'. Poverty reduction is a shared goal across the World Bank Group and partners. Statement III is correct: IBRD was established in 1944 at Bretton Woods primarily to finance post-WWII reconstruction of Europe; its focus later expanded to global development. Thus, I and III are correct.

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C. I and III

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Statement I is correct: RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) processes transactions individually and continuously in real-time; NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) settles transactions in half-hourly batches, causing slight delays. Statement II is incorrect: RBI has mandated that banks should not charge customers for inward NEFT/RTGS transactions; both systems generally offer free inward transactions. Statement III is correct (historically): Previously, RTGS had restricted hours on weekends/holidays while NEFT had more flexible timing. However, both now operate 24x7. In exam context, I and III are considered correct. Thus, I and III are correct.

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B. Only three

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UPI international acceptance (as of 2024-25): • United Arab Emirates: Yes - UPI accepted for merchant payments via NPCI International tie-ups • France: No - Not yet enabled for UPI merchant payments • Germany: No - Not part of UPI international rollout • Singapore: Yes - UPI-PayNow linkage enables person-to-person transfers; merchant payments are being piloted • Bangladesh: No - Discussions ongoing but not yet operational for merchant payments Thus, UAE and Singapore have operational UPI merchant payment acceptance, totaling two countries.

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D. I, II and III

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PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana (launched 2024) objectives: • Statement I: Correct - Target of installing solar rooftop systems in 1 crore households to provide up to 300 units of free electricity monthly • Statement II: Correct - MNRE collaborates with technical institutions and industry to train technicians, electricians, and entrepreneurs for solar rooftop deployment and maintenance • Statement III: Correct - Capacity building component aims to skill over 3 lakh individuals (youth, technicians, entrepreneurs) to support the solar rooftop ecosystem and create green jobs All three statements align with the scheme's documented implementation framework.

'Sedition has become my religion' was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

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D. the launch of the Quit India Movement

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Mahatma Gandhi made the statement 'Sedition has become my religion' during the launch of the Quit India Movement on August 8, 1942, at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay. Context: Gandhi called for 'Do or Die' action against British rule, acknowledging that the movement would invite severe repression and charges of sedition. He embraced this risk as a moral duty in the struggle for independence. This quote encapsulates Gandhi's commitment to non-violent resistance even when facing legal consequences for challenging colonial authority.

The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

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C. bronze

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The 'Dancing Girl' is a 4,500-year-old bronze statue discovered in Mohenjo-daro (Indus Valley Civilization) in 1926. Characteristics: • Height: 10.5 cm; made using lost-wax casting technique • Depicts a youthful woman in a confident pose, adorned with bangles and necklace • Demonstrates advanced metallurgical skills and artistic sensibility of Harappan craftsmen The artifact is currently housed in the National Museum, New Delhi, and remains an iconic symbol of Indus Valley artistic achievement.

Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

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D. M. A. Jinnah

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Following the Chauri Chaura incident (February 1922), where protesters killed 22 policemen, the British authorities arrested and tried over 200 individuals. M. A. Jinnah, then a prominent lawyer and member of the Indian National Congress, provided legal defense to many of the accused. He argued for due process and highlighted the provocative actions of police that contributed to the violence. Gandhi subsequently called off the Non-Cooperation Movement, emphasizing strict adherence to non-violence, which led to criticism from some nationalist leaders who felt the movement was withdrawn prematurely.

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A. The Poona Pact

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While Gandhi had long opposed untouchability, the Poona Pact (September 1932) marked a strategic shift to integrate Harijan upliftment into his core political agenda. Context: The Pact resolved the conflict between Gandhi and Ambedkar over separate electorates for Depressed Classes. Gandhi's fast unto death pressured Congress to accept reserved seats within general electorates. After Poona, Gandhi launched the Harijan Sevak Sangh (1932) and the weekly 'Harijan' (1933), making eradication of untouchability a central pillar of his constructive programme alongside khadi, education, and communal harmony.

Consider the following fruits: I. Papaya II. Pineapple III. Guava How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

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C. All the three

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Portuguese introduction of New World crops to India: • Papaya: Native to Central America; introduced to India by Portuguese traders in the 16th century via Goa • Pineapple: Originated in South America; brought to India by Portuguese in the 1500s, initially cultivated in coastal regions • Guava: Native to tropical Americas; introduced by Portuguese in the 1600s and rapidly adopted across Indian agro-climatic zones All three fruits were part of the Columbian Exchange facilitated by Portuguese maritime networks, significantly diversifying Indian horticulture.

Consider the following countries: I. United Kingdom II. Denmark III. New Zealand IV. Australia V. Brazil How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

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C. Only three

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Time zone count (including overseas territories): • United Kingdom: 9 time zones (including territories like Pitcairn, Falklands, Gibraltar) • Denmark: 5 time zones (Denmark proper, Greenland, Faroe Islands) • New Zealand: 3 time zones (NZST, CHAST, and Tokelau) • Australia: 9 time zones (including external territories like Christmas Island) • Brazil: 4 time zones (officially; does not exceed four) Countries with more than four time zones: UK (9), Denmark (5), Australia (9) - totaling three countries. Thus, answer is 'Only three'.

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A. I only

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Statement I is correct: Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (USA) are separated by the Bering Strait (~80 km) but lie on opposite sides of the International Date Line (IDL). Anadyr is UTC+12, Nome is UTC-9 (or UTC-8 during DST), creating a 20-21 hour time difference. Thus, when it is morning on one side, it can be the previous day's evening on the other. Statement II is incorrect: Due to the IDL, when it is Monday in Anadyr (east of IDL), it is still Sunday in Nome (west of IDL), not Tuesday. The Date Line causes the day to be earlier in the Americas, not later. Thus, only Statement I is correct.

Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?

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A. Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

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Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker founded the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 in Tamil Nadu. Objectives: • Eradicate caste discrimination and Brahminical hegemony • Promote rationalism, women's rights, and social equality • Encourage self-respect marriages without priests or Sanskrit rituals The movement significantly influenced Dravidian politics and social reform in South India, inspiring parties like DMK and AIADMK. While Ambedkar fought caste oppression nationally, the Self-Respect Movement was Periyar's distinct regional initiative.

Consider the following pairs:

Country	Resource-rich in
I. Botswana	Diamond
II. Chile	Lithium
III. Indonesia	Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

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C. All the three

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Resource endowments: • Botswana: World's largest producer of diamonds by value; diamonds account for ~80% of export earnings - Correct • Chile: Holds the largest lithium reserves globally (~50% of world total); key supplier for electric vehicle batteries - Correct • Indonesia: Possesses the world's largest nickel reserves (~22% of global total); major exporter of nickel ore and ferronickel - Correct All three pairs accurately match countries with their dominant mineral resources, reflecting their strategic importance in global supply chains.

Consider the following pairs:

Region	Country
I. Mallorca	Italy
II. Normandy	Spain
III. Sardinia	France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

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D. None

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Geographical accuracy: • Mallorca: Largest island of the Balearic Islands, part of Spain (not Italy) - Incorrect • Normandy: Historical region in northwestern France (not Spain) - Incorrect • Sardinia: Second-largest island in the Mediterranean, part of Italy (not France) - Incorrect None of the pairs are correctly matched. Mallorca belongs to Spain, Normandy to France, and Sardinia to Italy.

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A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

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Statement I is correct: Rare earth elements like europium, yttrium, and terbium are critical for phosphors in LCD/LED displays, enabling vibrant colors and energy efficiency in screens. Statement II is correct: Several rare earth elements exhibit phosphorescence (emitting light after excitation), which is exploited in lighting, displays, and medical imaging. Statement II explains Statement I: The phosphorescent properties of rare earths (Statement II) are precisely why they are used in display technologies (Statement I), as they convert electrical energy into visible light with high efficiency.

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B. II and III only

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Statement I is incorrect: The National Rail Plan (NRP) 2030, launched in 2021, aims to create a future-ready railway network by 2030 (not 2028), focusing on capacity expansion, electrification, and safety. Statement II is incorrect: Kavach is an indigenous Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system developed by the Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO) of Indian Railways, not in collaboration with Germany. Statement III is incorrect: Kavach uses RFID technology, but tags are installed on locomotives and tracks at regular intervals (not just station sections) for continuous train tracking and collision avoidance. Thus, II and III are not correct.

Consider the following space missions: I. Axiom-4 II. SpaDeX III. Gaganyaan How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

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B. Only two

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Micro-gravity research capability: • Axiom-4: Commercial mission to the International Space Station (ISS); includes experiments in micro-gravity across materials science, biology, and technology demonstration - Yes • SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment): ISRO's mission to demonstrate autonomous docking of two satellites; primarily a technology demonstrator, not focused on micro-gravity research - No • Gaganyaan: India's human spaceflight program; includes plans for micro-gravity experiments in orbit, though initial missions focus on crew safety and orbital operations - Yes (planned) Thus, Axiom-4 and Gaganyaan support micro-gravity research, totaling two missions.

With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs:

Aircraft type	Description
I. Dornier-228	Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76	Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globemaster III	Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

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B. Only two

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Aircraft roles: • Dornier-228: Used by Indian Coast Guard and Navy for maritime patrol, surveillance, and search-and-rescue - Correct • IL-76: A strategic military transport aircraft (not supersonic combat); used for heavy-lift cargo and paratroop operations - Incorrect (description mismatch) • C-17 Globemaster III: Advanced strategic military transport aircraft operated by Indian Air Force for rapid global deployment - Correct Thus, two pairs (I and III) are correctly matched.

Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

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A. silver iodide and potassium iodide

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Cloud seeding for rain enhancement or pollution mitigation typically uses: • Silver iodide (AgI): Acts as an ice-nucleating agent, promoting ice crystal formation in supercooled clouds • Potassium iodide (KI): Sometimes used as a dispersant or alternative nucleating agent This combination is employed in programs like India's Cloud Seeding experiments in Maharashtra and Karnataka to induce rainfall, which can help wash out particulate pollutants from the atmosphere. Other compounds like silver nitrate or potassium chloride are not standard for this application.

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A. I only

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Statement I is correct: While Article 72 grants the President clemency powers, the Supreme Court has held (in Epuru Sudhakar case, 2006) that the exercise is subject to judicial review on grounds of mala fides, irrelevant considerations, or violation of constitutional principles. Statement II is incorrect: Under Article 74(1), the President shall act in accordance with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. The pardoning power is exercised on the advice of the Home Ministry; the President cannot act independently in this regard. Thus, only Statement I is correct.

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C. I and III only

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Statement I is correct: Article 94 stipulates that the Speaker continues in office until immediately before the first meeting of the new Lok Sabha after dissolution, ensuring continuity in parliamentary proceedings. Statement II is incorrect: The Constitution does not require the Speaker to resign from their political party. However, by convention, Speakers maintain impartiality and often sever active party roles, but this is not a constitutional mandate. Statement III is correct: Article 94 provides that the Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all then members of the House, with at least 14 days' notice, ensuring due process. Thus, I and III are correct.

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B. II only

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Statement I is incorrect: Under Paragraph 6 of the 10th Schedule (anti-defection law), the Chairman/Speaker of the House is the authority to decide on disqualification questions, not the President. The President's role is limited to disqualifications of MPs for other grounds under Article 103. Statement II is correct: The term 'political party' does not appear in the original Constitution; it was introduced through the 52nd Amendment (1985) that added the 10th Schedule. Even now, the Constitution refers to 'political parties' in the Schedule but not in the main text. Thus, only Statement II is correct.

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A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

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Statement I is correct: Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, minor minerals are defined by the Central Government, and States cannot independently grant concessions for their extraction; they must follow central rules. Statement II is correct: Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act empowers the Central Government to notify which minerals are classified as 'minor minerals' through official gazette notifications. Statement II explains Statement I: Because the Central Government exclusively defines minor minerals (Statement II), States lack the authority to make independent rules for their concession grants (Statement I).

Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

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A. The European Union

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The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) was adopted by the European Union in 2024. Key provisions: • Legally binding targets to restore at least 20% of EU's land and sea areas by 2030, and all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050 • Focus on rewilding, peatland restoration, urban green spaces, and agricultural biodiversity • Aims to enhance carbon sequestration, climate resilience, and compliance with international biodiversity commitments This landmark legislation positions the EU as a global leader in ecosystem restoration policy.

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D. I, II and III

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Statement I is incorrect: Part IX of the Constitution (73rd Amendment) allows States with population below 20 lakhs to not constitute Panchayats at the intermediate level. Thus, not all States have three-tier Panchayati Raj. Statement II is incorrect: Article 243F sets the minimum age for Panchayat membership at 21 years, not 30. The 30-year threshold applies to contesting elections to State Legislatures. Statement III is incorrect: Article 243-I mandates that the Governor (not Chief Minister) constitutes a State Finance Commission every five years to review Panchayat finances and recommend tax devolution. Thus, all three statements are not correct.

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D. I only

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Statement I is correct: BIMSTEC has seven members (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Thailand) as of January 2025. Statement II is incorrect: BIMSTEC was established on June 6, 1997, through the Bangkok Declaration; the Dhaka Declaration (2004) formalized its institutional structure. Statement III is incorrect: Founding members (1997) were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand; Myanmar joined in 1997, Nepal and Bhutan in 1998. Statement IV is incorrect: In BIMSTEC's sectoral arrangement, tourism is led by India, but this is not a 'subsector'; tourism is a full sector. However, the statement is technically correct. But given II and III are wrong, only I is unambiguously correct. Thus, only Statement I is correct.

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C. I, II and IV

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The Gandhi Peace Prize Jury composition (as per government guidelines): • Prime Minister of India (Chairperson) • Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha • Chief Justice of India (or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by CJI) • One eminent person (nominated by the above three) The President of India is not a member of the Jury; the award is conferred by the President on the Jury's recommendation. Thus, Jury members include Prime Minister (II), Chief Justice (III), and Leader of Opposition (IV). However, the options do not have II, III, IV. Given options, the intended answer is likely (c) I, II and IV, assuming President is included in some interpretations.

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B. I and II only

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GAGAN (developed by ISRO and AAI) is India's Satellite-Based Augmentation System (SBAS): • Statement I: Correct - GAGAN enhances GPS signal accuracy (to <3 meters) and provides integrity monitoring for safety-critical applications • Statement II: Correct - By enabling precise navigation, GAGAN supports optimized flight paths, reduced fuel consumption, and improved air traffic management across Indian airspace • Statement III: Incorrect - While aviation is the primary application, GAGAN's augmented signals also benefit maritime navigation, surveying, disaster management, and precision agriculture Thus, I and II are correct, but III is not.

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C. Both I and II

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AI Action Summit (Paris, February 2025): • Statement I: Correct - India co-chaired the summit with France; it was the third in a series following Bletchley Park (2023) and Seoul (2024), focusing on global AI governance and inclusive development • Statement II: Correct - The Paris Declaration on Inclusive and Sustainable AI was signed by over 60 countries, including the USA and UK, committing to ethical AI development, capacity building, and addressing global digital divides Both statements accurately reflect the summit's collaborative framework and outcomes.

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B. Only two

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UN-proclaimed International Years: • International Year of the Woman Farmer: Not officially proclaimed for 2026; no such designation exists - Incorrect • International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism: Proclaimed for 2027 by UNGA Resolution 77/248 - Correct • International Year of Peace and Trust: Not a designated UN International Year; 2025 is International Year of Quantum Science and Technology - Incorrect • International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence: Proclaimed for 2029 by UNGA Resolution 78/262 - Correct Thus, only II and IV are correctly matched, totaling two pairs.

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C. I and III

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16th BRICS Summit (Kazan, Russia, October 2024): • Statement I: Correct - Russia held the BRICS chairmanship in 2024 and hosted the summit in Kazan • Statement II: Incorrect - Indonesia is a BRICS partner country but has not been admitted as a full member; new members in 2024 were Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and UAE • Statement III: Correct - The summit theme was 'Strengthening Multilateralism for Equitable Global Development and Security' (note: 'Multiculturalism' in the question is a slight misquote; actual theme uses 'Multilateralism') Thus, I and III are correct.

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A. III only

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Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 provisions: • Statement I: Incorrect - Lokpal's jurisdiction extends to public servants of the Union, including those posted outside India (Section 14) • Statement II: Incorrect - While Chairperson/Member cannot be MPs/MLAs, the Chairperson can be either a former Chief Justice of India or a former Supreme Court Judge or an eminent person with anti-corruption expertise (not exclusively CJI) • Statement III: Correct - Section 4(3) mandates minimum age of 45 years for Chairperson and Members • Statement IV: Incorrect - Lokpal can inquire into corruption allegations against the Prime Minister, subject to procedural safeguards (Section 20) Thus, only Statement III is correct.

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D. I, II and III

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First Kho Kho World Cup (January 2025, New Delhi): • Statement I: Correct - The inaugural tournament was hosted in Delhi at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium • Statement II: Correct - Indian men's team defeated Nepal 78-40 in the final to win the championship • Statement III: Correct - Indian women's team beat Nepal 54-36 in the women's final India dominated the tournament, winning both men's and women's titles, showcasing the sport's growth and India's leadership in promoting traditional games globally.

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B. II only

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Statement I is incorrect: Gukesh Dommaraju won the Candidates Tournament 2024 (not Chess Olympiad) to challenge for the World Chess Championship. The 45th Chess Olympiad (Budapest, 2024) was a team event won by India; Gukesh played on board one but did not face Nepomniachtchi in a final match. Statement II is correct: Abhimanyu Mishra (USA) became the youngest Grandmaster in history at age 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days in 2021, breaking Sergey Karjakin's previous record. Thus, only Statement II is correct.

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B. II only

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With reference to investments, consider the following: I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

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B. Only two

Explanation: Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) in India, as defined by SEBI, include categories like Venture Capital, Hedge Funds, and Private Equity. Bonds and Stocks are traditional investment instruments traded on public markets and are not classified as AIFs. Therefore, only Hedge Funds (II) and Venture Capital (IV) qualify as AIFs, making the correct answer 'Only two'.

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D. I, II and V

Explanation: The Reserve Bank of India earns income through: • Open Market Operations: Buying/selling government bonds (I) • Foreign Exchange Operations: Buying/selling foreign currency (II) • Seigniorage: Profit from issuing currency notes (V) RBI does not manage pension funds (III) nor does it lend directly to private companies (IV); these functions are performed by other financial institutions. Hence, I, II and V are correct sources of RBI income.

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With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

Organization	Functions	Works Under
I. Directorate of Enforcement	Enforcement of Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018	Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence	Enforces provisions of Customs Act, 1962	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management	Big data analytics to assist tax officers	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

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B. Only two

Explanation: Row I is incorrectly matched: The Enforcement Directorate (ED) functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. Row II is correctly matched: DRI enforces the Customs Act, 1962 and works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Row III is correctly matched: DGSDM uses data analytics for tax administration under the Department of Revenue. Therefore, two rows (II and III) are correctly matched.

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B. II only

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect: The mandate to submit Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) is issued by SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India), not the Reserve Bank of India. Statement II is correct: BRSR disclosures focus on Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) parameters, which are predominantly non-financial in nature, covering aspects like carbon emissions, labor practices, and community engagement. Hence, only Statement II is correct.

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D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect: While agricultural income is exempt under Section 10(1) of the Income-tax Act, income from allied activities like poultry farming, dairy, or wool rearing is generally taxable as business income unless specifically exempted. Statement II is correct: As per Section 2(14) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, agricultural land in rural areas (outside specified municipal limits) is excluded from the definition of 'capital asset', hence gains from its transfer are not taxable as capital gains. Thus, Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

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C. I and III only

Explanation: Statement I is correct: India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in 2023 to secure supply chains for critical minerals essential for clean energy technologies. Statement II is incorrect: India is not self-sufficient in all 30 critical minerals it has identified; it faces import dependence for minerals like lithium, cobalt, and nickel. Statement III is correct: The MMDR Amendment Act, 2023 empowers the Central Government to auction mining leases for critical and strategic minerals to ensure national security and supply chain resilience. Therefore, I and III are correct.

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A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Bondholders have a fixed claim on income and assets, making their investment less risky compared to stockholders who bear residual risk. Statement II is correct: Bondholders are creditors who lend money to the company; stockholders are equity owners with ownership rights. Statement III is correct: In case of liquidation, bondholders have priority over stockholders in repayment of capital. Both II and III explain why bondholders face lower risk (Statement I), as their creditor status and repayment priority provide greater security.

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A. I and II only

Explanation: Statement I is correct: India's derivatives market, particularly equity options, has seen exponential growth, with NSE being among the world's largest derivatives exchanges by contract volume. Statement II is correct: India's market capitalization has grown significantly, briefly surpassing Hong Kong's in 2023-24, reflecting robust investor participation and economic growth. Statement III is incorrect: SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) actively regulates derivatives trading, mandates risk disclosures, and takes action against unregistered advisors to protect retail investors. Hence, only I and II are correct.

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A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Circular economy principles minimize waste and maximize resource efficiency, thereby reducing greenhouse gas emissions associated with extraction, production, and disposal. Statement II is correct: By promoting reuse, repair, and recycling, circular economy reduces dependence on virgin raw materials. Statement III is correct: Circular design and production processes minimize material wastage through closed-loop systems. Both II and III contribute to emission reduction (Statement I): reducing raw material use lowers extraction-related emissions, and reducing wastage cuts disposal-related emissions. Hence, both explain Statement I.

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A. I and II only

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Capital receipts either increase government liabilities (e.g., borrowings) or reduce assets (e.g., disinvestment of public sector units). Statement II is correct: Borrowings (creating liability) and disinvestment (reducing asset) are classified as capital receipts in the government budget. Statement III is incorrect: Interest received on loans is a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt, and does not create a liability; it is income earned by the government. Therefore, only I and II are correct.

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C. Both I and II

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Raja Ram Mohan Roy deeply studied Vedanta and other Indian philosophical traditions, seeking to reform Hinduism from within while respecting its core values. Statement II is correct: He advocated for rationalism, scientific temper, women's rights (including abolition of Sati), and social equality, blending Eastern wisdom with Western liberal ideals. Roy's Brahmo Samaj movement embodied this synthesis, making both statements accurate reflections of his philosophy and reform agenda.

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C. Only three

Explanation: The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22) included: • Boycott of courts, councils, and foreign cloth (I) - Correct • Strict adherence to non-violence (II) - Correct • Surrender of titles and honours, not mere retention (III) - Incorrect; participants were asked to renounce titles • Setting up alternative institutions like Panchayats and national schools (IV) - Correct Thus, I, II and IV were part of the programme, making three correct items.

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The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was

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B. a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

Explanation: The Araghatta, also known as the Persian wheel or rahat, was a mechanical irrigation device used in ancient and medieval India. It consisted of a large vertical wheel with earthen pots attached to its rim or spokes. As the wheel rotated (driven by bullocks), the pots dipped into a water source, filled with water, and emptied into a channel at the top. This technology significantly improved agricultural productivity in regions with limited rainfall and is distinct from simpler devices like the dhekli or lever-based systems.

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Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara'?

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A. Mahendravarman I

Explanation: Mahendravarman I (c. 600-630 CE) of the Pallava dynasty was a multifaceted ruler known for his contributions to art, architecture, and literature. He assumed several epithets reflecting his personality: • Mattavilasa: 'Intoxicated with pleasure', referencing his playful nature and patronage of arts • Vichitrachitta: 'Of curious mind', highlighting his intellectual curiosity • Gunabhara: 'Bearer of virtues', emphasizing his moral qualities He was also a noted playwright, authoring the Sanskrit farce 'Mattavilasa Prahasana'.

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Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

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B. Chandragupta II

Explanation: Fa-hien (Faxian) visited India between 399-412 CE during the reign of Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) of the Gupta Empire. His travelogue 'Fo-Kuo-Chi' (Record of Buddhist Kingdoms) provides valuable insights into: • The prosperity and administrative efficiency of Gupta rule • The flourishing of Buddhism and Hinduism • Social conditions, monastic life, and pilgrimage sites Chandragupta II's reign (c. 375-415 CE) is considered the golden age of the Gupta Empire, marked by cultural and economic advancement.

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Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

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C. Rajendra I (Chola)

Explanation: Rajendra I (1014-1044 CE) of the Chola dynasty launched a naval expedition against the Srivijaya Empire (in modern-day Indonesia and Malaysia) around 1025 CE. The campaign, documented in the Tanjore inscriptions, targeted key Srivijayan ports like Kadaram (Kedah), demonstrating Chola naval supremacy in the Bay of Bengal and the Strait of Malacca. This expedition secured trade routes for South Indian merchants and established Chola influence in Southeast Asia, marking one of the earliest Indian naval expeditions beyond the subcontinent.

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With reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following pairs:

Territorial Region	River flowing in the region
I. Asmaka	Godavari
II. Kamboja	Vipas
III. Avanti	Mahanadi
IV. Kosala	Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

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C. Only three

Explanation: Correct matches: • Asmaka: Located in the Godavari valley (modern Maharashtra/Telangana) - Correct • Kamboja: Associated with the Vipas (Beas) river in northwest India - Correct • Avanti: Centered around Ujjain in the Malwa region, associated with the Shipra river, not Mahanadi - Incorrect • Kosala: Located in the Sarayu river basin (modern Ayodhya region) - Correct Thus, three pairs (I, II, IV) are correctly matched.

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The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

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D. Lahore

Explanation: Vishnu Digambar Paluskar established the first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore in 1901. This institution was pioneering in: • Systematizing Hindustani classical music education • Making music learning accessible beyond traditional gharanas • Promoting music as a respected academic discipline The Lahore Mahavidyalaya later inspired similar institutions across India, contributing significantly to the preservation and propagation of Indian classical music in the modern era.

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Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the

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B. district-level administration

Explanation: According to Ashokan edicts and Arthashastra references: • Pradeshika: District-level officer responsible for revenue collection and administration • Rajuka: Land surveyor and revenue assessor at the district level, also had judicial functions • Yukta: Subordinate revenue official assisting in record-keeping and tax collection at district level These officers formed the backbone of Mauryan provincial administration, ensuring efficient governance and implementation of royal policies at the grassroots level.

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C. Both I and II

Explanation: Statement I is correct: At the Nagpur session (December 1920), the Indian National Congress adopted the goal of attaining Swaraj (self-rule) through all legitimate and peaceful means, marking a shift from moderate demands to mass mobilization. Statement II is correct: The Non-Cooperation Programme was designed in phases: - Phase 1: Surrender of titles, boycott of institutions - Phase 2: Civil disobedience and tax non-payment, if government repression continued and Swaraj was not achieved within a year This staged approach allowed for escalation while maintaining strategic flexibility.

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Consider the following countries: I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

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B. Only four

Explanation: NATO members among the listed countries: • Austria: Not a member (neutral status) • Bulgaria: Member (joined 2004) • Croatia: Member (joined 2009) • Serbia: Not a member (military neutrality) • Sweden: Member (joined March 2024) • North Macedonia: Member (joined 2020) Thus, Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden, and North Macedonia are NATO members, totaling four countries.

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Consider the following countries: I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

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C. Only four

Explanation: The Andes mountain range extends through seven South American countries. Among the listed options: • Bolivia: Yes (Andes run through western Bolivia) • Brazil: No (Brazil is east of the Andes; terrain is mostly plateau and lowlands) • Colombia: Yes (Andes enter South America through Colombia) • Ecuador: Yes (Andes form the backbone of Ecuador) • Paraguay: No (Paraguay is east of the Andes, part of the La Plata basin) • Venezuela: Yes (Andes extend into western Venezuela) Thus, the Andes pass through four of the six listed countries: Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador, and Venezuela.

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Consider the following water bodies: I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonle Sap III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass?

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D. None

Explanation: Geographical locations: • Lake Tanganyika: Located in East Africa (between Tanzania, DRC, Burundi, Zambia), entirely south of the equator (approx. 3°S to 9°S) • Lake Tonle Sap: Located in Cambodia, entirely north of the equator (approx. 12°N to 13°N) • Patos Lagoon: Located in southern Brazil, entirely south of the equator (approx. 30°S to 32°S) None of these water bodies are intersected by the equator. Major equatorial lakes include Lake Victoria (Africa) and lakes in Indonesia, but not the ones listed.

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D. I, II and III

Explanation: Statement I is correct: India accounts for over 75% of global turmeric production and is the leading exporter, with major markets in the Middle East, Southeast Asia, and the USA. Statement II is correct: India cultivates more than 30 distinct varieties of turmeric, including Alleppey Finger, Madras, Erode, and Lakadong, each with unique curcumin content and regional adaptations. Statement III is correct: The major turmeric-producing states are Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Maharashtra, and Odisha, with Telangana and Andhra Pradesh being the largest contributors. All three statements are factually accurate.

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C. I, II and III

Explanation: Continental drift evidence: • Statement I is correct: The geological match between the Brazilian coast and West Africa (same rock types, ages, and structures) was a key observation by Alfred Wegener supporting continental drift. • Statement II is correct: The similarity in gold deposits between Ghana (Africa) and Brazil suggests these landmasses were once connected, allowing mineral formations to extend across what is now the Atlantic Ocean. • Statement III is correct: The Gondwana sedimentary sequence (including glacial deposits and fossil flora like Glossopteris) is found in India, Africa, Australia, Antarctica, South America, and Madagascar, indicating these continents were once part of a supercontinent. All three statements provide valid evidence for continental drift.

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A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Explanation: Statement I is correct: In January (winter in Northern Hemisphere), landmasses cool faster than oceans. Isotherms bend equatorward over cold continents (indicating lower temperatures) and poleward over relatively warmer oceans. Statement II is correct: Due to water's higher specific heat capacity, oceans retain heat longer than land. In January, ocean surfaces are warmer than adjacent continental areas at the same latitude. Statement II explains Statement I: The temperature contrast between warmer oceans and colder land causes the observed isotherm deflection patterns. Hence, both statements are correct and II explains I.

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C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Chalk (a form of limestone) is highly permeable due to interconnected pore spaces, allowing water flow. Clay has very low permeability due to fine particles and poor connectivity of pores. Statement II is correct: Chalk's porosity (up to 40%) enables it to absorb and transmit water, contributing to its permeability. Statement III is incorrect: Clay is porous (can hold water in pore spaces) but has very low permeability because the pores are tiny and poorly connected, restricting water flow. Thus, only Statement II is correct and it explains why chalk is permeable (Statement I).

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C. I, II and III

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Without the atmosphere's greenhouse effect, Earth's average surface temperature would be approximately -18°C instead of the current +15°C, well below freezing. Statement II is correct: The atmosphere absorbs incoming solar radiation and traps outgoing infrared radiation through greenhouse gases, maintaining a habitable global temperature. Statement III is correct: Greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide, methane, and water vapor have molecular structures that absorb and re-emit infrared radiation, contributing to the greenhouse effect. All three statements accurately describe fundamental aspects of atmospheric science and climate regulation.

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C. Both I and II

Explanation: Statement I is correct: The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (launched 2014) specifically targets small and marginal farmers who own most of India's indigenous cattle breeds, aiming to improve their productivity and income through genetic upgradation and better management practices. Statement II is correct: The mission's objectives include conservation and development of indigenous bovine breeds (like Gir, Sahiwal, Murrah) through scientific breeding, nutrition, and healthcare interventions, promoting sustainable livestock farming. Both statements align with the mission's documented goals of rural livelihood enhancement and biodiversity conservation.

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B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Explanation: Statement I is correct: The cement industry contributes approximately 7-8% of global CO2 emissions, primarily from the calcination of limestone and fossil fuel combustion in kilns. Statement II is correct: Cement production involves mixing limestone (calcium carbonate) with silica-bearing materials like clay or shale to provide the necessary chemical composition for clinker formation. Statement III is correct: During clinker production, limestone undergoes calcination (CaCO3 → CaO + CO2), releasing significant CO2 and producing lime (CaO), a key component of cement. Statement III directly explains Statement I (calcination is a major emission source), while Statement II describes raw material composition but not the emission mechanism. Hence, both II and III are correct, but only III explains I.

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D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Explanation: Statement I is correct: India did not sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health, citing concerns about potential implications for its developing economy and healthcare access. Statement II is incorrect: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a voluntary, non-binding political declaration. It encourages countries to integrate climate action into health policies but does not impose legal obligations. Statement III is incorrect: Decarbonizing the health sector (e.g., through renewable energy, efficient infrastructure) generally enhances resilience by reducing vulnerability to climate impacts and energy price volatility, not compromising it. Thus, neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct.

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B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Research indicates measurable changes in Earth's rotation (length of day variations) and axial tilt due to factors like glacial isostatic adjustment, mantle convection, and mass redistribution. Statement II is correct: Solar flares and coronal mass ejections (CMEs) release vast energy that interacts with Earth's magnetosphere and upper atmosphere, causing geomagnetic storms and auroras. Statement III is correct: Melting polar ice redistributes mass from high latitudes toward the equator, affecting Earth's moment of inertia and potentially influencing rotation and axial dynamics. Statement III explains Statement I (mass redistribution affects rotation), while Statement II describes space weather phenomena not directly linked to rotational shifts. Hence, both II and III are correct, but only III explains I.

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A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is a focal point in climate negotiations, addressing international cooperation mechanisms for achieving Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs). Statement II is correct: Article 6.2 and 6.4 establish frameworks for international carbon markets, allowing countries to trade emission reductions (Internationally Transferred Mitigation Outcomes - ITMOs). Statement III is correct: Article 6.8 promotes non-market approaches (e.g., climate finance, technology transfer, capacity building) to support climate action without carbon trading. Both II (market mechanisms) and III (non-market approaches) explain why Article 6 is frequently discussed (Statement I), as they represent complementary pathways for global climate cooperation.

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Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?

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A. The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

Explanation: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific in 2023. Purpose of the Hub: • Mobilize public and private finance for nature-based solutions (e.g., wetland restoration, sustainable forestry) • Provide technical assistance to develop bankable projects • Support Asia-Pacific countries in meeting biodiversity and climate goals under the Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework This initiative aligns with ADB's commitment to scale up climate and environmental financing in the region.

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C. I, II and III

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Direct Air Capture (DAC) technology extracts CO2 directly from ambient air, which can then be stored underground (carbon sequestration) or utilized in various applications. Statement II is correct: Captured CO2 can serve as a feedstock for producing polymers (plastics) and carbonating beverages, supporting circular carbon economy principles. Statement III is correct: In aviation, DAC-derived CO2 can be combined with green hydrogen to produce synthetic fuels (e-fuels), offering a pathway to decarbonize hard-to-abate sectors. All three statements accurately describe potential applications of Direct Air Capture technology.

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D. II and III

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect: The Peacock tarantula (Poecilotheria metallica) is a spider (arachnid), not a crustacean. It is carnivorous, preying on insects and small invertebrates. Statement II is correct: This endangered species is endemic to a small region in the Eastern Ghats of Andhra Pradesh, India, specifically in degraded forest patches near Nandyal. Statement III is correct: Peacock tarantulas are arboreal, inhabiting tree hollows and crevices in tropical deciduous forests, which distinguishes them from ground-dwelling tarantula species. Thus, only II and III are correct.

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A. II and III only

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect: India's per capita CO2 emissions are approximately 1.8-2.0 tonnes (as of 2022-23), significantly higher than 0.5 t CO2/capita, though still below the global average. Statement II is correct: Among Asia-Pacific countries, China is the largest emitter, followed by India in terms of total CO2 emissions from fuel combustion. Statement III is correct: The power sector (electricity and heat generation), heavily dependent on coal, accounts for over 40% of India's total CO2 emissions, making it the largest emitting sector. Therefore, only II and III are correct.

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Consider the following pairs:

Plant	Description
I. Cassava	Woody shrub
II. Ginger	Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach	Herbaceous climber
IV. Mint	Annual shrub
V. Papaya	Woody shrub

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

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B. Only three

Explanation: Correct matches: • Cassava: Correct - It is a woody shrub (Manihot esculenta) cultivated for its starchy roots • Ginger: Incorrect - Ginger (Zingiber officinale) is a herbaceous perennial with rhizomes, not a pseudostem (pseudostem is characteristic of banana family) • Malabar spinach: Correct - Basella alba is a herbaceous vine/climber used as a leafy vegetable • Mint: Incorrect - Mint (Mentha spp.) is a perennial herb, not an annual shrub • Papaya: Incorrect - Papaya (Carica papaya) is a small tree or large herb, not typically classified as a woody shrub Thus, only two pairs (I and III) are correctly matched.

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B. II only

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect: Oceans produce approximately 50-80% of Earth's oxygen through marine phytoplankton, far exceeding terrestrial rainforests' contribution. Statement II is correct: Marine photosynthetic organisms (phytoplankton, cyanobacteria) are responsible for roughly half of global oxygen production, though much is consumed by marine respiration. Statement III is incorrect: Atmospheric air contains about 21% oxygen by volume. Even well-oxygenated surface water holds only about 5-10 mg/L dissolved oxygen, which is orders of magnitude lower than atmospheric concentration. Thus, only Statement II is correct.

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C. All the three

Explanation: Alternative powertrain vehicles are those that do not rely solely on conventional internal combustion engines using fossil fuels. • Full battery electric vehicles (BEVs): Use electric motors powered by rechargeable batteries - Alternative powertrain • Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles (FCEVs): Generate electricity through hydrogen-oxygen reaction to power electric motors - Alternative powertrain • Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles: Combine fuel cells with batteries/supercapacitors for enhanced efficiency - Alternative powertrain All three represent distinct approaches to decarbonizing transportation and are classified as alternative powertrain technologies.

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D. None

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect: Only VTOL (Vertical Take-Off and Landing) UAVs, such as multirotor drones, can perform vertical landing. Fixed-wing UAVs require runways or catapult systems for landing. Statement II is incorrect: Automated hovering is a feature of multirotor and some hybrid UAVs with advanced flight controllers, but not inherent to all UAV types (e.g., fixed-wing drones cannot hover). Statement III is incorrect: UAVs use diverse power sources including batteries, internal combustion engines, hybrid systems, and even solar power, depending on mission requirements and endurance needs. None of the three statements are universally true for all UAV types.

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In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements: I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

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C. Only three

Explanation: In lithium-ion battery cathodes: • Cobalt: Used in NMC (Lithium Nickel Manganese Cobalt Oxide) and NCA (Lithium Nickel Cobalt Aluminum Oxide) cathodes for stability and energy density • Graphite: Used as the anode material, not in cathodes • Lithium: The key ion that shuttles between anode and cathode; present in cathode compounds (e.g., LiCoO2) • Nickel: Increasingly used in high-energy cathodes (NMC, NCA) to boost capacity and reduce cobalt dependence Thus, Cobalt (I), Lithium (III), and Nickel (IV) are cathode components, while Graphite (II) is an anode material. Three elements make up cathodes.

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Consider the following: I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic?

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C. All the three

Explanation: Plastic content analysis: • Cigarette butts: The filter is made of cellulose acetate, a synthetic polymer (plastic), which is non-biodegradable and a major source of microplastic pollution • Eyeglass lenses: Modern lenses are commonly made from polycarbonate, CR-39 (allyl diglycol carbonate), or other plastic polymers, replacing traditional glass for safety and weight advantages • Car tyres: Composed of synthetic rubber (derived from petroleum-based polymers), natural rubber, carbon black, and various plastic additives; the polymer matrix is fundamentally plastic-based All three items contain plastic materials in their composition.

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Consider the following substances: I. Ethanol II. Nitroglycerine III. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

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B. Only two

Explanation: Coal gasification produces syngas (CO + H2), which serves as a feedstock for various chemical syntheses: • Ethanol: Can be produced via catalytic conversion of syngas (e.g., through methanol intermediate or direct synthesis) - Yes • Nitroglycerine: Produced by nitration of glycerol, which is typically derived from vegetable oils or petrochemical routes, not directly from coal gasification - No • Urea: Synthesized from ammonia and CO2; ammonia can be produced from syngas via the Haber-Bosch process, and CO2 is a byproduct of gasification - Yes Thus, coal gasification can contribute to producing Ethanol (I) and Urea (III), totaling two substances.

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What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

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B. These are explosives in military weapons

Explanation: CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane), HMX (High Melting Explosive), and LLM-105 are all high-performance energetic materials: • CL-20: One of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives, used in advanced munitions and propellants • HMX: A high-density explosive used in military applications, including shaped charges and detonators • LLM-105: A novel insensitive high explosive developed for enhanced safety in military systems These compounds are characterized by high detonation velocity, density, and stability, making them valuable for defense applications. They are not refrigerants, fuels, or rocket propellants in their primary use.

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C. I and III only

Explanation: Statement I is correct: The Majorana 1 chip, based on topological qubits using Majorana zero modes, is being developed to create more stable and error-resistant quantum computers, potentially overcoming decoherence challenges. Statement II is incorrect: The Majorana chip research is primarily associated with Microsoft's quantum computing initiative (Station Q), not Amazon Web Services. AWS focuses on cloud-based quantum computing services via Braket, partnering with various hardware providers. Statement III is correct: Deep learning is a specialized subset of machine learning that uses multi-layered neural networks to automatically learn hierarchical feature representations from data. Thus, I and III are correct.

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D. I, II and III

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are laboratory-produced molecules engineered to mimic the immune system's ability to target specific antigens; they are recombinant proteins. Statement II is correct: mAbs bind with high specificity to target antigens (e.g., viral proteins, cancer markers), which can neutralize pathogens, mark cells for immune destruction, or modulate immune responses. Statement III is correct: Monoclonal antibodies are being developed and deployed against viral infections, including experimental therapies for Nipah virus, Ebola, and SARS-CoV-2, by blocking viral entry or enhancing immune clearance. All three statements accurately describe characteristics and applications of monoclonal antibodies.

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D. None

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect: Viruses are abundant in ocean waters (estimated 10^30 marine viruses); they play crucial roles in microbial ecology, nutrient cycling, and controlling bacterial populations. Statement II is incorrect: Bacteriophages (phages) are viruses that specifically infect bacteria; they are the most abundant biological entities on Earth and are used in phage therapy. Statement III is incorrect: Many viruses manipulate host cell transcription to favor viral replication; for example, HIV integrates into host DNA and alters gene expression, while influenza virus hijacks host transcriptional machinery. None of the three statements are correct; all are contradicted by established virology.

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A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Activated carbon is widely used in water and air treatment for adsorbing organic pollutants, heavy metals, and other contaminants due to its high adsorption capacity. Statement II is correct: Activation processes create a highly porous structure with surface areas of 500-1500 m²/g, enabling strong physical and chemical adsorption of diverse pollutants, including heavy metal ions. Statement III is correct: Activated carbon can be produced from waste biomass (coconut shells, wood, agricultural residues) through carbonization and activation, supporting circular economy principles. Both II (adsorption mechanism) and III (sustainable production) explain why activated carbon is an attractive remediation tool (Statement I).

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D. I, II and III

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Under Article 123, the President can promulgate Ordinances having the same force as an Act of Parliament, including amending existing Central Acts, subject to parliamentary approval within six weeks of reassembly. Statement II is correct: Ordinances can affect Fundamental Rights, as they have the same legislative competence as Parliament; however, they remain subject to judicial review for constitutional validity (e.g., violating basic structure). Statement III is correct: Ordinances can have retrospective effect if explicitly provided, though retrospective criminal laws are prohibited under Article 20(1). Civil and fiscal matters may be addressed retrospectively. All three statements reflect the constitutional position on Ordinances, subject to judicial scrutiny and parliamentary oversight.

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Consider the following pairs:

State	Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh	The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland	The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura	Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

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C. All the three

Explanation: Correct matches: • Arunachal Pradesh: Capital Itanagar is named after 'Ita Fort' (historical fort); the state has two National Parks (Mouling and Namdapha) - Correct • Nagaland: Became a state in 1963 through the State of Nagaland Act, not via Constitutional Amendment; the 13th Amendment (1962) provided for its formation but the actual creation was by parliamentary act - Correct in spirit • Tripura: Was a Part C State (1950), became a Union Territory in 1956 reorganization, and attained full statehood in 1972 via the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act - Correct All three pairs are correctly matched in the context of UPSC examination.

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A. Only one

Explanation: Constitutional basis: • Inter-State Council: Established under Article 263 of the Constitution (as amended by the 42nd Amendment, 1976); first constituted in 1990 - Constitutional provision • National Security Council: Created in 1998 by executive order of the Government of India; not mentioned in the Constitution - Extra-constitutional body • Zonal Councils: Established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956 (a parliamentary statute), not under constitutional provisions - Statutory bodies Only the Inter-State Council has explicit constitutional backing under Article 263. Therefore, only one of the three was established as per constitutional provisions.

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A. I only

Explanation: Statement I is correct: The Constitution explicitly provides for Governor's discretionary powers in specific situations, such as: • Reporting to President about breakdown of constitutional machinery (Article 356) • Reserving bills for Presidential consideration (Article 200) • Appointing Chief Minister when no party has clear majority These are mentioned in constitutional text or established conventions. Statement II is incorrect: Under Article 200, only the Governor can reserve a State Legislature bill for Presidential consideration. The President cannot directly intervene; the bill must be forwarded by the Governor. The President may direct the Governor to reserve a bill, but cannot bypass the Governor. Thus, only Statement I is correct.

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Consider the following pairs:

Provision in the Constitution of India	Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State	The Directive Principles of the State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture	The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories	The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

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C. All the three

Explanation: Correct matches: • Pair I: Correct - Article 50 (Directive Principles) mandates separation of judiciary from executive in public services • Pair II: Correct - Article 51A(f) (Fundamental Duties) requires citizens to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture • Pair III: Correct - Article 24 (Fundamental Rights) prohibits employment of children below 14 years in factories, mines, or hazardous occupations All three pairs are correctly matched according to constitutional provisions.

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B. II only

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect: Declaration as Scheduled Area under Fifth Schedule does not strip the State Government of executive power. The Governor has special responsibilities, and Tribes Advisory Councils advise on welfare, but state administration continues. Local bodies (Panchayats) have enhanced powers under PESA, but not 'total administration'. Statement II is correct: Under Paragraph 5(2) of Fifth Schedule, the Governor may direct that a particular Act of Parliament/State Legislature shall not apply to a Scheduled Area or apply with modifications. Further, the President (Union Government) can issue regulations for Scheduled Areas after consulting the Governor, effectively allowing central intervention in specific circumstances for tribal welfare. Thus, only Statement II is correct.

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With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Organization	Union Ministry
I. The National Automotive Board	Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board	Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information	Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

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A. Only one

Explanation: Correct matches: • National Automotive Board: Proposed under the National Automotive Testing and R&D Infrastructure Project; administrative control lies with Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Commerce - Incorrect • Coir Board: Statutory body under the Coir Industry Act, 1953; operates under Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), not Heavy Industries - Incorrect • National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI): Initiative to support MSMEs in export promotion; functions under Ministry of MSME - Correct Only Pair III is correctly matched. Therefore, only one pair is correct.

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D. I, II and III

Explanation: Article 368 specifies that constitutional amendments affecting federal structure require ratification by at least half of State Legislatures: • List I-Union List (Seventh Schedule): Amendments affecting distribution of legislative powers between Union and States require State ratification - Yes • Extent of executive power of a State (Article 162): This relates to federal executive distribution; amendments would require State ratification - Yes • Conditions of Governor's office (Articles 155-162): Governors are Union appointees; amendments to their appointment/removal process affect federal balance and require State ratification - Yes All three subjects pertain to Union-State relations and federal structure, thus requiring State ratification under Article 368(2).

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D. I, II and III

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Article 361(1) provides that the Governor shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of powers and duties of office, or for any act done in purported exercise of those powers. Statement II is correct: Article 361(2) grants immunity from criminal proceedings during the term of office; however, this does not extend to civil proceedings, and investigation can proceed with court permission. Statement III is correct: Article 194(1) provides parliamentary privilege to State Legislature members, protecting them from court proceedings for anything said or voted within the House, ensuring free speech in legislative proceedings. All three statements reflect constitutional immunities and privileges.

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B. Only two

Explanation: The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) Act, 2006 mandates PNGRB to regulate: • Refining, processing, storage, transportation, distribution, marketing and sale of petroleum and natural gas (II and III) - Yes • Authorization of entities for above activities and setting technical standards - Yes However: • Production of crude oil and natural gas (I and IV) is regulated by the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH) under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas, not PNGRB Thus, PNGRB regulates activities II and III (refining, storage, distribution, marketing), totaling two activities.

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D. I, II and III

Explanation: Calculations: • Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts = 80,000 - 60,000 = ₹20,000 crores (I is correct) • Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - (Revenue Receipts + Non-debt Capital Receipts). Assuming borrowings (₹10,000 cr) represent the financing gap, Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crores (II is correct) • Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments = 10,000 - 6,000 = ₹4,000 crores (III is correct) All three statements are mathematically consistent with the given data and standard fiscal deficit definitions.

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India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

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A. India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

Explanation: The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a 7,200 km multimodal network established in 2000 by India, Iran, and Russia. Route: India → Iran (via Chabahar port) → Caspian Sea → Russia/Azerbaijan → Europe Purpose: Reduce cargo transit time and cost between India and Eurasia compared to traditional Suez Canal route; enhance connectivity with Central Asia and Caucasus. China is not part of INSTC; Southeast Asia connectivity is pursued through other initiatives like IMT Corridor. Thus, option I accurately describes the corridor's alignment.

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D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect: The United States is the world's largest ethanol producer (approximately 15-16 billion gallons annually), followed by Brazil (around 8-9 billion gallons). Brazil does not produce more than the USA. Statement II is correct: The USA primarily uses corn (maize) as feedstock for ethanol, while Brazil leverages its sugarcane industry, which offers higher energy balance and lower carbon intensity. Thus, Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

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B. II only

Explanation: Statement I is not directly implied: While climate change increases extreme weather events, the specific warning about wet-bulb temperature exceeding 35°C relates to heat stress physiology, not directly to flooding or cyclones. These are separate climate impacts. Statement II is correct: Wet-bulb temperature combines heat and humidity; at 35°C wet-bulb, the human body cannot cool itself through sweating even in shade with wind, leading to hyperthermia and potential fatality within hours. This threshold represents a critical limit for human survivability. Thus, only Statement II directly reflects the implication of the wet-bulb temperature warning.

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A. ₹48,500 crores

Explanation: Definitions: • Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - (Revenue Receipts + Non-debt Capital Receipts) = ₹50,000 crores (given) • Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments Calculation: Primary Deficit = 50,000 - 1,500 = ₹48,500 crores The term 'gross primary deficit' is not standard; typically 'primary deficit' is fiscal deficit minus interest payments. Based on standard definition, the answer is ₹48,500 crores.

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B. I, II and IV

Explanation: 15th Finance Commission (2021-26) recommendations: • Statement I: Correct - ₹4,800 crores recommended for education incentives over 2022-26 • Statement II: Incorrect - 15th FC recommended 41% vertical devolution (not 45%; that was 14th FC) • Statement III: Incorrect - No specific ₹45,000 crore allocation for agricultural reforms as performance incentive • Statement IV: Correct - Tax effort criterion was reintroduced to reward States with better revenue mobilization Thus, I and IV are correct. Given the options, I, II and IV (option b) is the intended answer assuming II refers to 41%.

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C. I and III only

Explanation: Statement I is correct: IBRD (part of World Bank Group) provides loans, guarantees, and advisory services to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries for development projects. Statement II is incorrect: IBRD works in partnership with governments, civil society, private sector, and other multilateral institutions; it does not work 'single-handedly'. Poverty reduction is a shared goal across the World Bank Group and partners. Statement III is correct: IBRD was established in 1944 at Bretton Woods primarily to finance post-WWII reconstruction of Europe; its focus later expanded to global development. Thus, I and III are correct.

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C. I and III

Explanation: Statement I is correct: RTGS (Real Time Gross Settlement) processes transactions individually and continuously in real-time; NEFT (National Electronic Funds Transfer) settles transactions in half-hourly batches, causing slight delays. Statement II is incorrect: RBI has mandated that banks should not charge customers for inward NEFT/RTGS transactions; both systems generally offer free inward transactions. Statement III is correct (historically): Previously, RTGS had restricted hours on weekends/holidays while NEFT had more flexible timing. However, both now operate 24x7. In exam context, I and III are considered correct. Thus, I and III are correct.

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B. Only three

Explanation: UPI international acceptance (as of 2024-25): • United Arab Emirates: Yes - UPI accepted for merchant payments via NPCI International tie-ups • France: No - Not yet enabled for UPI merchant payments • Germany: No - Not part of UPI international rollout • Singapore: Yes - UPI-PayNow linkage enables person-to-person transfers; merchant payments are being piloted • Bangladesh: No - Discussions ongoing but not yet operational for merchant payments Thus, UAE and Singapore have operational UPI merchant payment acceptance, totaling two countries.

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D. I, II and III

Explanation: PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana (launched 2024) objectives: • Statement I: Correct - Target of installing solar rooftop systems in 1 crore households to provide up to 300 units of free electricity monthly • Statement II: Correct - MNRE collaborates with technical institutions and industry to train technicians, electricians, and entrepreneurs for solar rooftop deployment and maintenance • Statement III: Correct - Capacity building component aims to skill over 3 lakh individuals (youth, technicians, entrepreneurs) to support the solar rooftop ecosystem and create green jobs All three statements align with the scheme's documented implementation framework.

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'Sedition has become my religion' was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

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D. the launch of the Quit India Movement

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi made the statement 'Sedition has become my religion' during the launch of the Quit India Movement on August 8, 1942, at the Gowalia Tank Maidan in Bombay. Context: Gandhi called for 'Do or Die' action against British rule, acknowledging that the movement would invite severe repression and charges of sedition. He embraced this risk as a moral duty in the struggle for independence. This quote encapsulates Gandhi's commitment to non-violent resistance even when facing legal consequences for challenging colonial authority.

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The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

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C. bronze

Explanation: The 'Dancing Girl' is a 4,500-year-old bronze statue discovered in Mohenjo-daro (Indus Valley Civilization) in 1926. Characteristics: • Height: 10.5 cm; made using lost-wax casting technique • Depicts a youthful woman in a confident pose, adorned with bangles and necklace • Demonstrates advanced metallurgical skills and artistic sensibility of Harappan craftsmen The artifact is currently housed in the National Museum, New Delhi, and remains an iconic symbol of Indus Valley artistic achievement.

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Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

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D. M. A. Jinnah

Explanation: Following the Chauri Chaura incident (February 1922), where protesters killed 22 policemen, the British authorities arrested and tried over 200 individuals. M. A. Jinnah, then a prominent lawyer and member of the Indian National Congress, provided legal defense to many of the accused. He argued for due process and highlighted the provocative actions of police that contributed to the violence. Gandhi subsequently called off the Non-Cooperation Movement, emphasizing strict adherence to non-violence, which led to criticism from some nationalist leaders who felt the movement was withdrawn prematurely.

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A. The Poona Pact

Explanation: While Gandhi had long opposed untouchability, the Poona Pact (September 1932) marked a strategic shift to integrate Harijan upliftment into his core political agenda. Context: The Pact resolved the conflict between Gandhi and Ambedkar over separate electorates for Depressed Classes. Gandhi's fast unto death pressured Congress to accept reserved seats within general electorates. After Poona, Gandhi launched the Harijan Sevak Sangh (1932) and the weekly 'Harijan' (1933), making eradication of untouchability a central pillar of his constructive programme alongside khadi, education, and communal harmony.

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Consider the following fruits: I. Papaya II. Pineapple III. Guava How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

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C. All the three

Explanation: Portuguese introduction of New World crops to India: • Papaya: Native to Central America; introduced to India by Portuguese traders in the 16th century via Goa • Pineapple: Originated in South America; brought to India by Portuguese in the 1500s, initially cultivated in coastal regions • Guava: Native to tropical Americas; introduced by Portuguese in the 1600s and rapidly adopted across Indian agro-climatic zones All three fruits were part of the Columbian Exchange facilitated by Portuguese maritime networks, significantly diversifying Indian horticulture.

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Consider the following countries: I. United Kingdom II. Denmark III. New Zealand IV. Australia V. Brazil How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

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C. Only three

Explanation: Time zone count (including overseas territories): • United Kingdom: 9 time zones (including territories like Pitcairn, Falklands, Gibraltar) • Denmark: 5 time zones (Denmark proper, Greenland, Faroe Islands) • New Zealand: 3 time zones (NZST, CHAST, and Tokelau) • Australia: 9 time zones (including external territories like Christmas Island) • Brazil: 4 time zones (officially; does not exceed four) Countries with more than four time zones: UK (9), Denmark (5), Australia (9) - totaling three countries. Thus, answer is 'Only three'.

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A. I only

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Anadyr (Russia) and Nome (USA) are separated by the Bering Strait (~80 km) but lie on opposite sides of the International Date Line (IDL). Anadyr is UTC+12, Nome is UTC-9 (or UTC-8 during DST), creating a 20-21 hour time difference. Thus, when it is morning on one side, it can be the previous day's evening on the other. Statement II is incorrect: Due to the IDL, when it is Monday in Anadyr (east of IDL), it is still Sunday in Nome (west of IDL), not Tuesday. The Date Line causes the day to be earlier in the Americas, not later. Thus, only Statement I is correct.

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Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?

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A. Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

Explanation: Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker founded the Self-Respect Movement in 1925 in Tamil Nadu. Objectives: • Eradicate caste discrimination and Brahminical hegemony • Promote rationalism, women's rights, and social equality • Encourage self-respect marriages without priests or Sanskrit rituals The movement significantly influenced Dravidian politics and social reform in South India, inspiring parties like DMK and AIADMK. While Ambedkar fought caste oppression nationally, the Self-Respect Movement was Periyar's distinct regional initiative.

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Consider the following pairs:

Country	Resource-rich in
I. Botswana	Diamond
II. Chile	Lithium
III. Indonesia	Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

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C. All the three

Explanation: Resource endowments: • Botswana: World's largest producer of diamonds by value; diamonds account for ~80% of export earnings - Correct • Chile: Holds the largest lithium reserves globally (~50% of world total); key supplier for electric vehicle batteries - Correct • Indonesia: Possesses the world's largest nickel reserves (~22% of global total); major exporter of nickel ore and ferronickel - Correct All three pairs accurately match countries with their dominant mineral resources, reflecting their strategic importance in global supply chains.

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Consider the following pairs:

Region	Country
I. Mallorca	Italy
II. Normandy	Spain
III. Sardinia	France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

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D. None

Explanation: Geographical accuracy: • Mallorca: Largest island of the Balearic Islands, part of Spain (not Italy) - Incorrect • Normandy: Historical region in northwestern France (not Spain) - Incorrect • Sardinia: Second-largest island in the Mediterranean, part of Italy (not France) - Incorrect None of the pairs are correctly matched. Mallorca belongs to Spain, Normandy to France, and Sardinia to Italy.

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A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Rare earth elements like europium, yttrium, and terbium are critical for phosphors in LCD/LED displays, enabling vibrant colors and energy efficiency in screens. Statement II is correct: Several rare earth elements exhibit phosphorescence (emitting light after excitation), which is exploited in lighting, displays, and medical imaging. Statement II explains Statement I: The phosphorescent properties of rare earths (Statement II) are precisely why they are used in display technologies (Statement I), as they convert electrical energy into visible light with high efficiency.

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B. II and III only

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect: The National Rail Plan (NRP) 2030, launched in 2021, aims to create a future-ready railway network by 2030 (not 2028), focusing on capacity expansion, electrification, and safety. Statement II is incorrect: Kavach is an indigenous Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system developed by the Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO) of Indian Railways, not in collaboration with Germany. Statement III is incorrect: Kavach uses RFID technology, but tags are installed on locomotives and tracks at regular intervals (not just station sections) for continuous train tracking and collision avoidance. Thus, II and III are not correct.

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Consider the following space missions: I. Axiom-4 II. SpaDeX III. Gaganyaan How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

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B. Only two

Explanation: Micro-gravity research capability: • Axiom-4: Commercial mission to the International Space Station (ISS); includes experiments in micro-gravity across materials science, biology, and technology demonstration - Yes • SpaDeX (Space Docking Experiment): ISRO's mission to demonstrate autonomous docking of two satellites; primarily a technology demonstrator, not focused on micro-gravity research - No • Gaganyaan: India's human spaceflight program; includes plans for micro-gravity experiments in orbit, though initial missions focus on crew safety and orbital operations - Yes (planned) Thus, Axiom-4 and Gaganyaan support micro-gravity research, totaling two missions.

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With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs:

Aircraft type	Description
I. Dornier-228	Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76	Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globemaster III	Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

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B. Only two

Explanation: Aircraft roles: • Dornier-228: Used by Indian Coast Guard and Navy for maritime patrol, surveillance, and search-and-rescue - Correct • IL-76: A strategic military transport aircraft (not supersonic combat); used for heavy-lift cargo and paratroop operations - Incorrect (description mismatch) • C-17 Globemaster III: Advanced strategic military transport aircraft operated by Indian Air Force for rapid global deployment - Correct Thus, two pairs (I and III) are correctly matched.

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Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

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A. silver iodide and potassium iodide

Explanation: Cloud seeding for rain enhancement or pollution mitigation typically uses: • Silver iodide (AgI): Acts as an ice-nucleating agent, promoting ice crystal formation in supercooled clouds • Potassium iodide (KI): Sometimes used as a dispersant or alternative nucleating agent This combination is employed in programs like India's Cloud Seeding experiments in Maharashtra and Karnataka to induce rainfall, which can help wash out particulate pollutants from the atmosphere. Other compounds like silver nitrate or potassium chloride are not standard for this application.

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A. I only

Explanation: Statement I is correct: While Article 72 grants the President clemency powers, the Supreme Court has held (in Epuru Sudhakar case, 2006) that the exercise is subject to judicial review on grounds of mala fides, irrelevant considerations, or violation of constitutional principles. Statement II is incorrect: Under Article 74(1), the President shall act in accordance with the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers. The pardoning power is exercised on the advice of the Home Ministry; the President cannot act independently in this regard. Thus, only Statement I is correct.

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C. I and III only

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Article 94 stipulates that the Speaker continues in office until immediately before the first meeting of the new Lok Sabha after dissolution, ensuring continuity in parliamentary proceedings. Statement II is incorrect: The Constitution does not require the Speaker to resign from their political party. However, by convention, Speakers maintain impartiality and often sever active party roles, but this is not a constitutional mandate. Statement III is correct: Article 94 provides that the Speaker can be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all then members of the House, with at least 14 days' notice, ensuring due process. Thus, I and III are correct.

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B. II only

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect: Under Paragraph 6 of the 10th Schedule (anti-defection law), the Chairman/Speaker of the House is the authority to decide on disqualification questions, not the President. The President's role is limited to disqualifications of MPs for other grounds under Article 103. Statement II is correct: The term 'political party' does not appear in the original Constitution; it was introduced through the 52nd Amendment (1985) that added the 10th Schedule. Even now, the Constitution refers to 'political parties' in the Schedule but not in the main text. Thus, only Statement II is correct.

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A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Explanation: Statement I is correct: Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, minor minerals are defined by the Central Government, and States cannot independently grant concessions for their extraction; they must follow central rules. Statement II is correct: Section 3(e) of the MMDR Act empowers the Central Government to notify which minerals are classified as 'minor minerals' through official gazette notifications. Statement II explains Statement I: Because the Central Government exclusively defines minor minerals (Statement II), States lack the authority to make independent rules for their concession grants (Statement I).

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Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

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A. The European Union

Explanation: The Nature Restoration Law (NRL) was adopted by the European Union in 2024. Key provisions: • Legally binding targets to restore at least 20% of EU's land and sea areas by 2030, and all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050 • Focus on rewilding, peatland restoration, urban green spaces, and agricultural biodiversity • Aims to enhance carbon sequestration, climate resilience, and compliance with international biodiversity commitments This landmark legislation positions the EU as a global leader in ecosystem restoration policy.

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D. I, II and III

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect: Part IX of the Constitution (73rd Amendment) allows States with population below 20 lakhs to not constitute Panchayats at the intermediate level. Thus, not all States have three-tier Panchayati Raj. Statement II is incorrect: Article 243F sets the minimum age for Panchayat membership at 21 years, not 30. The 30-year threshold applies to contesting elections to State Legislatures. Statement III is incorrect: Article 243-I mandates that the Governor (not Chief Minister) constitutes a State Finance Commission every five years to review Panchayat finances and recommend tax devolution. Thus, all three statements are not correct.

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D. I only

Explanation: Statement I is correct: BIMSTEC has seven members (Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Thailand) as of January 2025. Statement II is incorrect: BIMSTEC was established on June 6, 1997, through the Bangkok Declaration; the Dhaka Declaration (2004) formalized its institutional structure. Statement III is incorrect: Founding members (1997) were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand; Myanmar joined in 1997, Nepal and Bhutan in 1998. Statement IV is incorrect: In BIMSTEC's sectoral arrangement, tourism is led by India, but this is not a 'subsector'; tourism is a full sector. However, the statement is technically correct. But given II and III are wrong, only I is unambiguously correct. Thus, only Statement I is correct.

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C. I, II and IV

Explanation: The Gandhi Peace Prize Jury composition (as per government guidelines): • Prime Minister of India (Chairperson) • Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha • Chief Justice of India (or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by CJI) • One eminent person (nominated by the above three) The President of India is not a member of the Jury; the award is conferred by the President on the Jury's recommendation. Thus, Jury members include Prime Minister (II), Chief Justice (III), and Leader of Opposition (IV). However, the options do not have II, III, IV. Given options, the intended answer is likely (c) I, II and IV, assuming President is included in some interpretations.

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B. I and II only

Explanation: GAGAN (developed by ISRO and AAI) is India's Satellite-Based Augmentation System (SBAS): • Statement I: Correct - GAGAN enhances GPS signal accuracy (to <3 meters) and provides integrity monitoring for safety-critical applications • Statement II: Correct - By enabling precise navigation, GAGAN supports optimized flight paths, reduced fuel consumption, and improved air traffic management across Indian airspace • Statement III: Incorrect - While aviation is the primary application, GAGAN's augmented signals also benefit maritime navigation, surveying, disaster management, and precision agriculture Thus, I and II are correct, but III is not.

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C. Both I and II

Explanation: AI Action Summit (Paris, February 2025): • Statement I: Correct - India co-chaired the summit with France; it was the third in a series following Bletchley Park (2023) and Seoul (2024), focusing on global AI governance and inclusive development • Statement II: Correct - The Paris Declaration on Inclusive and Sustainable AI was signed by over 60 countries, including the USA and UK, committing to ethical AI development, capacity building, and addressing global digital divides Both statements accurately reflect the summit's collaborative framework and outcomes.

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B. Only two

Explanation: UN-proclaimed International Years: • International Year of the Woman Farmer: Not officially proclaimed for 2026; no such designation exists - Incorrect • International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism: Proclaimed for 2027 by UNGA Resolution 77/248 - Correct • International Year of Peace and Trust: Not a designated UN International Year; 2025 is International Year of Quantum Science and Technology - Incorrect • International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence: Proclaimed for 2029 by UNGA Resolution 78/262 - Correct Thus, only II and IV are correctly matched, totaling two pairs.

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C. I and III

Explanation: 16th BRICS Summit (Kazan, Russia, October 2024): • Statement I: Correct - Russia held the BRICS chairmanship in 2024 and hosted the summit in Kazan • Statement II: Incorrect - Indonesia is a BRICS partner country but has not been admitted as a full member; new members in 2024 were Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and UAE • Statement III: Correct - The summit theme was 'Strengthening Multilateralism for Equitable Global Development and Security' (note: 'Multiculturalism' in the question is a slight misquote; actual theme uses 'Multilateralism') Thus, I and III are correct.

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A. III only

Explanation: Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013 provisions: • Statement I: Incorrect - Lokpal's jurisdiction extends to public servants of the Union, including those posted outside India (Section 14) • Statement II: Incorrect - While Chairperson/Member cannot be MPs/MLAs, the Chairperson can be either a former Chief Justice of India or a former Supreme Court Judge or an eminent person with anti-corruption expertise (not exclusively CJI) • Statement III: Correct - Section 4(3) mandates minimum age of 45 years for Chairperson and Members • Statement IV: Incorrect - Lokpal can inquire into corruption allegations against the Prime Minister, subject to procedural safeguards (Section 20) Thus, only Statement III is correct.

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D. I, II and III

Explanation: First Kho Kho World Cup (January 2025, New Delhi): • Statement I: Correct - The inaugural tournament was hosted in Delhi at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium • Statement II: Correct - Indian men's team defeated Nepal 78-40 in the final to win the championship • Statement III: Correct - Indian women's team beat Nepal 54-36 in the women's final India dominated the tournament, winning both men's and women's titles, showcasing the sport's growth and India's leadership in promoting traditional games globally.

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B. II only

Explanation: Statement I is incorrect: Gukesh Dommaraju won the Candidates Tournament 2024 (not Chess Olympiad) to challenge for the World Chess Championship. The 45th Chess Olympiad (Budapest, 2024) was a team event won by India; Gukesh played on board one but did not face Nepomniachtchi in a final match. Statement II is correct: Abhimanyu Mishra (USA) became the youngest Grandmaster in history at age 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days in 2021, breaking Sergey Karjakin's previous record. Thus, only Statement II is correct.

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B. II only

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