UPSC Prelims 2024 GS Paper-I
General Studies MCQs from UPSC CSE Prelims 2024 Paper-I covering Geography, Environment, Economy, Polity, History, Science & Technology and Current Affairsβ’ 100 Questions | β’ 1 Mark Each | β’ Negative Marking: -1/3 for wrong answers
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| 1 | Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation. Statement-II: Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct | 0.00 | Statement-I is incorrect: The atmosphere is heated more by terrestrial (longwave) radiation emitted from Earth's surface than by direct incoming solar (shortwave) radiation. Statement-II is correct: Greenhouse gases like CO2, methane, and water vapor are efficient absorbers of longwave infrared radiation emitted by Earth, which is the basis of the greenhouse effect. Thus, Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 2 | Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles. Statement-II: At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I | 0.00 | Statement-I is correct: The troposphere is thicker at the equator (~16-18 km) than at poles (~8 km) due to higher temperatures causing greater thermal expansion. Statement-II is correct: Intense solar heating at the equator generates strong convectional currents that transport heat vertically to great heights. Statement-II explains Statement-I: The strong convectional currents at the equator (Statement-II) are the reason why the troposphere is thicker there (Statement-I). | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 3 | Consider the following: 1. Pyroclastic debris 2. Ash and dust 3. Nitrogen compounds 4. Sulphur compounds How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. All four | 0.00 | All four are products of volcanic eruptions: β’ Pyroclastic debris: Fragmented volcanic material ejected during explosive eruptions β’ Ash and dust: Fine particles of pulverized rock and glass released during eruptions β’ Nitrogen compounds: Volcanic gases include nitrogen oxides released from magma β’ Sulphur compounds: SO2 and H2S are major volcanic gases contributing to acid rain and atmospheric effects Volcanic eruptions release a complex mixture of solid, liquid, and gaseous materials. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 4 | Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January? 1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent. 2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north. | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. 1 only | 0.00 | Inference 1 is correct: In January (Northern Hemisphere winter), isotherms bend poleward over relatively warmer oceans and equatorward over colder continents due to differential heating. Inference 2 is incorrect: The Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are warm currents, not cold currents. They make the North Atlantic Ocean warmer, causing isotherms to bend poleward (northward), but the statement incorrectly describes them as cold currents. Thus, only inference 1 is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 5 | Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Cote d'Ivoire and Ghana | 0.00 | CΓ΄te d'Ivoire (Ivory Coast) and Ghana are the world's two largest cocoa producers, together accounting for approximately 60% of global cocoa supply. β’ CΓ΄te d'Ivoire: ~2.2 million tonnes annually (largest producer) β’ Ghana: ~1.1 million tonnes annually (second largest) Both countries are located in West Africa's 'Cocoa Belt', where tropical climate conditions are ideal for cocoa cultivation. Other options list African countries not known for cocoa production. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 6 | With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. Ghaghara-Gomati-Gandak-Kosi | 0.00 | The correct west-to-east sequence of Himalayan tributaries joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj is: 1. Ghaghara (joins near Chhapra, Bihar) 2. Gomati (joins near Varanasi, UP) 3. Gandak (joins near Hajipur, Bihar) 4. Kosi (joins near Kursela, Bihar) This sequence follows the geographical alignment of these rivers as they flow from the Himalayas and merge with the Ganga in eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 7 | Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks. Statement-II: Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution. Statement-III: Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I | 0.00 | Statement-I is correct: Rainfall contributes to chemical weathering through dissolution, hydrolysis, and oxidation processes. Statement-II is correct: Rainwater absorbs atmospheric CO2, forming weak carbonic acid (H2CO3), which enhances chemical weathering of rocks like limestone. Statement-III is correct: Rainwater contains dissolved atmospheric oxygen, which facilitates oxidation weathering of iron-bearing minerals. Both II and III explain Statement-I: Carbonic acid (from CO2) causes dissolution weathering, while dissolved oxygen enables oxidation weathering. Hence, both explain how rainfall causes rock weathering. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 8 | Consider the following countries: 1. Finland 2. Germany 3. Norway 4. Russia How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. Only two | 0.00 | Countries with North Sea borders among the listed options: β’ Finland: No - Borders the Baltic Sea, not the North Sea β’ Germany: Yes - Has coastline along the North Sea (Schleswig-Holstein, Lower Saxony) β’ Norway: Yes - Southern coast borders the North Sea β’ Russia: No - Borders the Baltic Sea and Arctic Ocean, not the North Sea Thus, only Germany and Norway (two countries) have borders with the North Sea. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 9 | Consider the following information:
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Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. Only one | 0.00 | Row-wise verification:
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| 10 | Consider the following information:
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Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. Only one | 0.00 | Row-wise verification:
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| 11 | Consider the following airports: 1. Donyi Polo Airport 2. Kushinagar International Airport 3. Vijayawada International Airport In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. 1 and 2 only | 0.00 | Greenfield airport projects are built on new sites without existing airport infrastructure: β’ Donyi Polo Airport (Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh): Greenfield project, inaugurated in 2022 β’ Kushinagar International Airport (Uttar Pradesh): Greenfield project, inaugurated in 2021 for Buddhist pilgrimage tourism β’ Vijayawada International Airport: Brownfield project - upgraded from existing domestic airport, not built on a new site Thus, only airports 1 and 2 are Greenfield projects. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 12 | With reference to 'water vapour', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude. 2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles. | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. 1 only | 0.00 | Statement 1 is correct: Water vapour concentration decreases rapidly with altitude because: β’ Temperature decreases with height, reducing evaporation capacity β’ Most moisture is concentrated in the lower troposphere β’ Cold air at higher altitudes holds less water vapour Statement 2 is incorrect: Water vapour percentage is maximum in tropical/equatorial regions due to high temperatures and evaporation, not at poles. Polar regions have very low atmospheric moisture content due to cold temperatures. Thus, only statement 1 is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 13 | Consider the following description: 1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low. 2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year. 3. Precipitation varies between 50cm-250cm. What is this type of climate? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. Marine West coast climate | 0.00 | The described characteristics match Marine West Coast Climate (Cfb in KΓΆppen classification): β’ Low temperature range: Maritime influence moderates temperatures; small difference between summer and winter β’ Year-round precipitation: Westerlies bring moisture throughout the year β’ Precipitation 50-250 cm: Moderate to high rainfall, often orographic Equatorial climate has higher temperatures and precipitation (>250 cm). China type and Humid subtropical climates have distinct seasonal precipitation patterns and higher temperature ranges. Examples: UK, Northwest Europe, Pacific Northwest USA. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 14 | With reference to 'Coriolis force', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It increases with increase in wind velocity. 2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator. | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Both 1 and 2 | 0.00 | Both statements about Coriolis force are correct: Statement 1: Coriolis force is proportional to wind velocity (F = 2Ξ©v sinΟ). Faster-moving air experiences greater deflection. Statement 2: Coriolis force varies with latitude (sinΟ factor): β’ Maximum at poles (sin 90Β° = 1) β’ Zero at equator (sin 0Β° = 0) β’ Explains why tropical cyclones don't form near equator Coriolis force is an apparent force due to Earth's rotation, deflecting moving objects right in Northern Hemisphere and left in Southern Hemisphere. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 15 | On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours? 1. Equator 2. Tropic of Cancer 3. Tropic of Capricorn 4. Arctic Circle | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. 2 and 4 | 0.00 | June 21 is the Northern Hemisphere summer solstice: β’ Equator (0Β°): Experiences ~12 hours daylight year-round; not more than 12 hours β’ Tropic of Cancer (23.5Β°N): Receives direct sunlight; daylight exceeds 12 hours (~13.5 hours) β’ Tropic of Capricorn (23.5Β°S): Winter solstice in Southern Hemisphere; daylight less than 12 hours β’ Arctic Circle (66.5Β°N): Experiences midnight sun; 24 hours of daylight Thus, Tropic of Cancer (2) and Arctic Circle (4) experience more than 12 hours of sunlight on June 21. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 16 | One of the following regions has the world's largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. Congo Basin | 0.00 | The Congo Basin contains the world's largest tropical peatland complex, discovered in 2017: β’ Location: Central Congo Basin, spanning DRC and Republic of Congo β’ Area: ~145,500 kmΒ² of peatlands β’ Carbon storage: ~30 billion tonnes of carbon (equivalent to ~3 years of global fossil fuel emissions) β’ Ecological significance: Critical carbon sink; drainage or degradation would release massive CO2 The Amazon has significant forests but smaller peatland areas. Kikori (Papua New Guinea) and Rio de la Plata (South America) are not known for major tropical peatlands. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 17 | With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements: 1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials. 2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment. 3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies. Which of the statements given above are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. 1, 2 and 3 | 0.00 | All three statements about PFAS are correct: Statement 1: PFAS contamination is widespread due to their use in non-stick coatings, food packaging, firefighting foams, and textiles. They leach into water supplies and food chains. Statement 2: PFAS are called 'forever chemicals' because their strong carbon-fluorine bonds resist natural degradation processes, persisting for decades in environment. Statement 3: PFAS bioaccumulate in organisms and biomagnify up food chains. Human exposure is linked to health issues including immune dysfunction, thyroid disorders, and certain cancers. Regulatory agencies worldwide are increasingly restricting PFAS use due to these concerns. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 18 | Consider the following: 1. Carabid beetles 2. Centipedes 3. Flies 4. Termites 5. Wasps Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. Only three | 0.00 | Parasitoids are organisms that live on or in a host and eventually kill it. Among the listed groups: β’ Carabid beetles: Some species are parasitoids (e.g., certain genera parasitize caterpillars) - Yes β’ Centipedes: Predatory but not parasitoids - No β’ Flies: Many families include parasitoids (e.g., Tachinidae, Sarcophagidae) - Yes β’ Termites: Social insects, not parasitoids - No β’ Wasps: Many families are parasitoids (e.g., Ichneumonidae, Braconidae) - Yes Thus, parasitoid species are found in three groups: Carabid beetles, Flies, and Wasps. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 19 | Consider the following plants: 1. Groundnut 2. Horse-gram 3. Soybean How many of the above belong to the pea family? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. All three | 0.00 | All three plants belong to the pea family (Fabaceae/Leguminosae): β’ Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea): Fabaceae family; legume that fixes atmospheric nitrogen through root nodules β’ Horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum): Fabaceae family; drought-resistant pulse crop β’ Soybean (Glycine max): Fabaceae family; major protein and oil source globally Fabaceae is characterized by: β’ Fruit: Legume (pod) β’ Root nodules with Rhizobium bacteria for nitrogen fixation β’ Papilionaceous flowers in many species All three are important agricultural legumes. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 20 | Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the 'vermin' category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972. Statement-II: The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect | 0.00 | Statement-I is correct: The Indian Flying Fox (Pteropus giganteus) is listed under Schedule V ('vermin') of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, allowing controlled management due to crop damage. Statement-II is incorrect: Indian Flying Foxes are frugivores (fruit-eaters) and nectar-feeders. They do not feed on blood. Vampire bats (found in Americas, not India) are the only mammals that feed on blood. Thus, Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 21 | The organisms 'Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater' are: | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Insects | 0.00 | All three organisms are insects (Class: Insecta, Phylum: Arthropoda): β’ Cicada: Order Hemiptera; known for loud mating calls; nymphs live underground feeding on root sap β’ Froghopper/Spittlebug: Order Hemiptera; nymphs produce protective foam ('spittle'); adults can jump remarkably high β’ Pond skater/Water strider: Order Hemiptera; adapted to walk on water surface using hydrophobic leg hairs All belong to Hemiptera (true bugs), characterized by piercing-sucking mouthparts and incomplete metamorphosis. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 22 | Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution. Statement-II: Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I | 0.00 | Statement-I is correct: Discarded chewing gum is a significant urban pollutant: β’ Non-biodegradable gum bases persist for years β’ Removal costs municipalities millions annually β’ Microplastics from degraded gum enter ecosystems Statement-II is correct: Modern chewing gum bases often contain synthetic polymers (polyethylene, polyvinyl acetate) - essentially plastics - replacing traditional chicle. Statement-II explains Statement-I: The plastic content in gum base (Statement-II) is precisely why discarded gum persists in the environment and causes pollution (Statement-I). | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 23 | Consider the following pairs:
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Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. All three | 0.00 | Row-wise verification:
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| 24 | Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization: 1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations. 2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis. 3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. 2 only | 0.00 | Statement 1 is incorrect: World Toilet Organization (WTO) is an independent non-profit NGO founded in 2001, not a UN agency. However, it collaborates with UN-Water and helped establish World Toilet Day (November 19), which was adopted by UN General Assembly. Statement 2 is correct: WTO initiated: β’ World Toilet Summit (annual conference) β’ World Toilet Day (Nov 19, now UN-recognized) β’ World Toilet College (capacity building for sanitation professionals) Statement 3 is incorrect: WTO focuses on advocacy, awareness, and knowledge sharing, not direct fund disbursement. Funding for sanitation comes from governments, World Bank, and other development agencies. Thus, only statement 2 is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 25 | Consider the following statements: 1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season. 2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar. 3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking. Which of the statements given above are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. 1 and 2 only | 0.00 | Statement 1 is correct: Lions can breed year-round in suitable habitats, though births may peak during periods of abundant prey. Unlike seasonal breeders, lionesses can come into estrus any time. Statement 2 is correct: Cheetahs cannot roar like lions, tigers, leopards, and jaguars. They vocalize through chirps, purrs, and growls due to different laryngeal anatomy. Statement 3 is incorrect: Male leopards DO mark territory using scent (urine spraying, scratching trees), similar to male lions. Scent marking is crucial for territorial communication in most felids. Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 26 | Which one of the following is the correct description of '100 Million Farmers'? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience. | 0.00 | '100 Million Farmers' is an initiative launched at COP28 (2023) by the World Economic Forum and partners: β’ Objective: Support 100 million farmers in transitioning to nature-positive, carbon-neutral, and water-positive food production by 2030 β’ Focus areas: Regenerative agriculture, climate resilience, sustainable water management, biodiversity conservation β’ Approach: Multi-stakeholder platform connecting farmers, governments, businesses, and financiers Option 1 accurately describes this initiative. Other options describe different agricultural platforms or misrepresent the program's scope. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 27 | Consider the following: 1. Battery storage 2. Biomass generators 3. Fuel cells 4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units How many of the above are considered 'Distributed Energy Resources'? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. All four | 0.00 | All four are classified as Distributed Energy Resources (DERs): β’ Battery storage: Stores energy locally for later use; supports grid stability and renewable integration β’ Biomass generators: Small-scale power generation using organic materials; can be deployed at community/industrial level β’ Fuel cells: Generate electricity through electrochemical reactions; suitable for decentralized power applications β’ Rooftop solar PV: Generates electricity at point of consumption; reduces transmission losses DERs are characterized by: β’ Small to medium scale (typically <10 MW) β’ Located close to end-users β’ Can operate connected to or independent of the main grid β’ Enhance energy security and renewable adoption | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 28 | Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. Fig | 0.00 | Fig trees (Ficus spp.) exhibit obligate mutualism with fig wasps (Agaonidae family): β’ Each fig species is pollinated by a specific fig wasp species β’ Wasps enter the enclosed inflorescence (syconium) to lay eggs and pollinate flowers β’ Larvae develop inside fig fruits; adult wasps emerge carrying pollen to next tree β’ Neither can reproduce without the other: classic coevolution Mahua, Sandalwood, and Silk cotton are pollinated by multiple insect species (bees, moths, beetles) and do not show such exclusive one-to-one pollinator relationships. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 29 | Consider the following: 1. Butterflies 2. Fish 3. Frogs How many of the above have poisonous species among them? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. All three | 0.00 | All three groups include poisonous/toxic species: β’ Butterflies: Monarch butterflies store cardenolides from milkweed, making them toxic to predators. Other examples: Pipevine swallowtails store aristolochic acids β’ Fish: Pufferfish (tetrodotoxin), Stonefish (venomous spines), Lionfish (venomous spines) - many marine species produce toxins for defense β’ Frogs: Poison dart frogs (Dendrobatidae) secrete potent alkaloids through skin; Golden Poison Frog is among the world's most toxic animals Note: 'Poisonous' (toxic when touched/eaten) differs from 'venomous' (injects toxin via bite/sting). All three groups contain poisonous species. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 30 | Consider the following: 1. Cashew 2. Papaya 3. Red sanders How many of the above trees are actually native to India? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. Only one | 0.00 | Native status verification: β’ Cashew (Anacardium occidentale): Native to northeastern Brazil; introduced to India by Portuguese in 16th century via Goa - Not native β’ Papaya (Carica papaya): Native to southern Mexico/Central America; introduced to India by Spanish/Portuguese traders - Not native β’ Red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus): Endemic to southern Eastern Ghats of India (Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu) - Native Thus, only Red sanders (one species) is native to India. Cashew and Papaya are naturalized but not indigenous. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 31 | With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements: 1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors. 2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts. 3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development. Which of the statements given above are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. 2 and 3 only | 0.00 | Statement 1 is incorrect: RTGs are NOT fission reactors. They generate electricity through thermoelectric conversion of heat from radioactive decay (not nuclear fission chain reaction). No moving parts or criticality involved. Statement 2 is correct: RTGs power deep space missions where solar power is insufficient: β’ Voyager, Cassini, New Horizons, Curiosity/Perseverance rovers β’ Provide reliable, long-duration power (decades) independent of sunlight Statement 3 is correct: Pu-238 is produced in nuclear reactors (not directly a weapons by-product, but from irradiating Np-237). It has ideal properties: high decay heat, low gamma radiation, 87.7-year half-life. Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 32 | Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars. Statement-II: Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct | 0.00 | Statement-I is incorrect: Giant stars have SHORTER lifespans than dwarf stars of similar mass. Massive stars (which become giants) burn fuel rapidly due to higher core temperatures and pressures, exhausting hydrogen in millions (not billions) of years. Statement-II is correct: Giant stars have higher luminosity and greater nuclear reaction rates due to: β’ Higher core temperatures from gravitational contraction β’ Larger fuel consumption to support expanded outer layers β’ Faster fusion cycles (CNO cycle dominates over proton-proton chain) Thus, Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 33 | Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. Nitric oxide | 0.00 | Nitric oxide (NO) is the correct answer: β’ Synthesized by endothelial cells via nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enzyme β’ Acts as a signaling molecule causing vascular smooth muscle relaxation β’ Mechanism: Activates guanylate cyclase β increases cGMP β vasodilation β’ Clinical relevance: Basis for nitroglycerin treatment of angina; erectile dysfunction drugs enhance NO pathway Other options: β’ Nitrous oxide (N2O): Anesthetic gas, not endogenously produced for vasodilation β’ Nitrogen dioxide (NO2): Toxic pollutant, causes respiratory irritation β’ Nitrogen pentoxide (N2O5): Unstable compound, not biologically relevant | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 34 | Consider the following activities: 1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft 2. Monitoring of precipitation 3. Tracking the migration of animals In how many of the above activities can the radars be used? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. Only two | 0.00 | Radar applications verification: β’ Activity 1 (Narcotics identification): Radar cannot identify narcotics on passengers. Security screening uses X-ray scanners, millimeter-wave body scanners, or sniffer dogs - not radar. Incorrect. β’ Activity 2 (Precipitation monitoring): Weather radars (Doppler, dual-polarization) detect precipitation intensity, movement, and type (rain, snow, hail). Critical for forecasting and warnings. Correct. β’ Activity 3 (Animal migration tracking): Specialized radars (e.g., NEXRAD, bird radars) track large-scale bird/bat/insect migrations by detecting echoes from flying organisms. Used in ecological research. Correct. Thus, radars can be used in two activities (2 and 3). | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 35 | Consider the following aircraft: 1. Rafael 2. MiG-29 3. Tejas MK-1 How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. None | 0.00 | None of the listed aircraft are fifth-generation fighters: β’ Rafale (Dassault, France): 4.5-generation multirole fighter. Features AESA radar, supercruise capability, but lacks stealth shaping and sensor fusion defining 5th-gen. β’ MiG-29 (Russia): 4th-generation fighter (1980s design). Upgraded variants (MiG-35) are 4++ generation, but original MiG-29 lacks stealth, advanced avionics of 5th-gen. β’ Tejas MK-1 (India): 4th-generation light combat aircraft. Features fly-by-wire, composite materials, but not stealth or advanced sensor integration of 5th-gen. Fifth-generation characteristics: Stealth, supercruise, advanced avionics/sensor fusion, network-centric warfare capability (e.g., F-22, F-35, Su-57, J-20). Thus, none qualify as fifth-generation. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 36 | In which of the following are hydrogels used? 1. Controlled drug delivery in patients 2. Mobile air-conditioning systems 3. Preparation of industrial lubricants | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. 1 only | 0.00 | Hydrogel applications verification: β’ Application 1 (Controlled drug delivery): Correct. Hydrogels' biocompatibility, tunable porosity, and stimuli-responsiveness make them ideal for sustained/targeted drug release (e.g., insulin delivery, cancer therapy). β’ Application 2 (Mobile AC systems): Incorrect. Mobile AC uses refrigerants (R-134a, R-1234yf), compressors, and heat exchangers. Hydrogels are not used in vapor-compression refrigeration cycles. β’ Application 3 (Industrial lubricants): Incorrect. Lubricants are typically mineral/synthetic oils, greases, or solid lubricants (graphite, MoS2). Hydrogels are water-based and unsuitable for high-load, high-temperature lubrication. Thus, hydrogels are used only in controlled drug delivery. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 37 | Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. Water vapour | 0.00 | Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce only water vapour as tailpipe emission: β’ Electrochemical reaction: 2Hβ + Oβ β 2HβO + electricity β’ Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the fuel cell stack to generate electricity, with water as the sole byproduct β’ Emission is pure water vapour (may appear as mist in cold conditions) β’ Zero COβ, NOx, SOx, or particulate emissions Other options: β’ Hydrogen peroxide (HβOβ): Not a fuel cell byproduct; unstable compound β’ Hydronium (HβOβΊ): Ion in aqueous solutions, not an exhaust gas β’ Oxygen: Consumed in the reaction, not emitted This zero-emission characteristic makes FCEVs attractive for sustainable transport. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 38 | Recently, the term 'pumped-storage hydropower' is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Long duration energy storage | 0.00 | Pumped-storage hydropower (PSH) is primarily discussed for long-duration energy storage: β’ Mechanism: Uses excess electricity (e.g., from solar/wind) to pump water uphill to a reservoir; releases water through turbines to generate power during peak demand β’ Role in energy transition: Provides grid-scale storage (hours to days), frequency regulation, and renewable integration β’ Capacity: Accounts for ~95% of global energy storage capacity; projects range from 100 MW to 3000+ MW PSH is not designed for irrigation or rainwater harvesting. While water is involved, its purpose is energy arbitrage, not agricultural water supply. Thus, PSH is appropriately discussed in the context of long-duration energy storage. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 39 | 'Membrane Bioreactors' are often discussed in the context of: | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. Wastewater treatment technologies | 0.00 | Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) are advanced wastewater treatment systems: β’ Combination: Biological treatment (activated sludge) + membrane filtration (micro/ultrafiltration) β’ Advantages: Higher effluent quality, smaller footprint, reduced sludge production compared to conventional treatment β’ Applications: Municipal wastewater reuse, industrial effluent treatment, decentralized systems β’ Membranes: Remove suspended solids, bacteria, and some viruses; produce water suitable for irrigation or industrial reuse MBRs are not used in reproductive technologies, drug delivery, or vaccine production. The term specifically refers to wastewater treatment innovation. Thus, MBRs are discussed in the context of wastewater treatment technologies. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 40 | With reference to the Indian economy, 'Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations' are the instruments of: | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Money market | 0.00 | Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLO) are money market instruments: β’ Introduced by: Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. (CCIL) in 2003 β’ Purpose: Enable collateralized short-term borrowing/lending (1 day to 1 year) for entities without access to call money market β’ Mechanism: Borrowers pledge government securities as collateral; lenders provide funds against this security β’ Participants: Banks, primary dealers, insurance companies, mutual funds, NBFCs β’ Significance: Enhances liquidity management, reduces counterparty risk, deepens money market CBLOs are not traded in bond, forex, or stock markets. They are specifically money market instruments for short-term collateralized funding. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 41 | The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as: | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age. | 0.00 | Total Fertility Rate (TFR) definition: β’ Correct definition (Option 4): The average number of live births a woman would have if she experienced current age-specific fertility rates throughout her reproductive years (typically 15-49 years) β’ Unit: Births per woman (not per 1000 population) β’ Significance: Key indicator for population growth projections; replacement level is ~2.1 in developed countries Other options: β’ Option 1: Describes Crude Birth Rate (births per 1000 population) β’ Option 2: Informal description but imprecise; TFR is period measure, not cohort-based β’ Option 3: Describes Natural Increase Rate (birth rate minus death rate) Thus, option 4 is the precise demographic definition of TFR. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 42 | Consider the following statements: 1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India. 2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs). 3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. 2 and 3 only | 0.00 | Statement 1 is incorrect: NBFCs cannot directly access RBI's Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF). LAF is available only to scheduled commercial banks and primary dealers. NBFCs access liquidity through banks or market instruments. Statement 2 is correct: FIIs (now categorized as Foreign Portfolio Investors) can invest in Government Securities subject to limits: β’ Overall limit: 6% of outstanding G-Secs (can be increased by RBI) β’ Long-term G-Secs: Higher limits to attract stable foreign investment Statement 3 is correct: Stock exchanges can operate separate platforms for debt securities: β’ BSE and NSE have dedicated debt segments β’ RBI permits exchanges to list and trade corporate bonds, G-Secs, SDLs β’ Enhances price discovery and liquidity in debt markets Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 43 | In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities? 1. Insurance Companies 2. Pension Funds 3. Retail Investors | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. 1, 2 and 3 | 0.00 | All three categories can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities in India: β’ Insurance Companies: IRDAI regulations permit insurers to invest in G-Secs and high-rated corporate bonds as part of their investment portfolio (typically 50-70% in government-approved securities) β’ Pension Funds: EPFO, NPS, and other pension funds invest significantly in G-Secs and AAA/AA+ corporate bonds for stable, long-term returns matching liability profiles β’ Retail Investors: Can invest through: - Primary market: RBI's Retail Direct Scheme for G-Secs - Secondary market: Stock exchange platforms (NSE/BSE) for listed bonds - Mutual funds/ETFs focusing on debt instruments Thus, all three categories (1, 2, and 3) can trade in these instruments. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 44 | Consider the following: 1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF) 2. Motor vehicles 3. Currency swap Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. 1 and 3 only | 0.00 | Financial instruments are contracts that give rise to a financial asset of one entity and a financial liability or equity instrument of another. β’ ETF (1): Financial instrument - Tradable security representing ownership in a portfolio of assets (stocks, bonds, commodities); traded on exchanges like stocks β’ Motor vehicles (2): NOT a financial instrument - Physical asset (tangible good); though it can be financed via financial instruments (loans, leases), the vehicle itself is not a financial contract β’ Currency swap (3): Financial instrument - Derivative contract where two parties exchange principal and interest payments in different currencies; used for hedging forex risk or accessing foreign capital Thus, ETF and Currency swap (1 and 3) are financial instruments. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 45 | With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
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Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. Only one | 0.00 | Sector classification verification:
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| 46 | Consider the following materials: 1. Agricultural residues 2. Corn grain 3. Wastewater treatment sludge 4. Wood mill waste Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. 1, 2, 3 and 4 | 0.00 | All four materials can serve as feedstock for Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) production: β’ Agricultural residues (1): Straw, husks, stalks can be converted via Fischer-Tropsch or alcohol-to-jet pathways β’ Corn grain (2): Can be fermented to ethanol, then converted to jet fuel via alcohol-to-jet (ATJ) technology; though food-vs-fuel concerns exist β’ Wastewater treatment sludge (3): Organic content can be processed via hydrothermal liquefaction or anaerobic digestion to produce bio-crude for SAF β’ Wood mill waste (4): Sawdust, bark, chips can be gasified or pyrolyzed to produce syngas or bio-oil for SAF synthesis SAF pathways approved by ASTM include HEFA, FT-SPK, ATJ, and CHJ, accommodating diverse feedstocks. All four options are viable, though sustainability criteria (land use, emissions) must be met. Thus, all four (1, 2, 3, and 4) can be used. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 47 | With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
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Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. Only one | 0.00 | Capital classification verification:
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| 48 | Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote 'an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items'? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Metaverse | 0.00 | The description precisely defines the Metaverse: β’ Interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds: Core metaverse concept of connected virtual spaces β’ Simultaneous access by millions: Scalable, persistent online environments β’ Property rights over virtual items: Blockchain/NFT-based ownership of digital assets (land, avatars, items) Other options: β’ Big data analytics: Processing large datasets for insights; unrelated to virtual worlds β’ Cryptography: Techniques for secure communication; enables metaverse security but not the concept itself β’ Virtual matrix: Not a standard term; may reference 'The Matrix' film but not the described concept Metaverse combines VR/AR, blockchain, social networking, and digital economies to create immersive shared experiences. Thus, 'Metaverse' is the appropriate term. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 49 | With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements: 1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India. 2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. 2 only | 0.00 | Statement 1 is incorrect: RBI mandates minimum capital requirements for foreign bank subsidiaries: β’ Wholly Owned Subsidiaries (WOS): Minimum paid-up voting equity capital of βΉ500 crore β’ Additional capital based on risk-weighted assets and expansion plans β’ Ensures financial soundness and depositor protection Statement 2 is correct: RBI guidelines require: β’ At least 50% of board directors of foreign bank WOS to be Indian nationals β’ At least one-third of directors to be independent β’ Aims to ensure local governance perspective and regulatory compliance Thus, only statement 2 is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 50 | With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements: 1. CSR rules specify that expenditure that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities. 2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. 1 only | 0.00 | Statement 1 is correct: Companies Act, 2013 and CSR Rules explicitly exclude: β’ Activities benefiting only the company or its employees (e.g., staff welfare, employee training) β’ One-off events, political contributions, or activities in normal course of business β’ CSR must address broader societal needs as per Schedule VII Statement 2 is incorrect: CSR rules DO specify minimum spending: β’ Companies meeting threshold criteria (net worth βΉ500 cr, turnover βΉ1000 cr, or net profit βΉ5 cr) must spend at least 2% of average net profits of preceding 3 years on CSR β’ Unspent amount must be transferred to specified funds or explained in board report Thus, only statement 1 is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 51 | Consider the following statements: Statement-I: If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment. Statement-II: The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct | 0.00 | Statement-I is incorrect: Even in a hypothetical US debt default scenario: β’ Treasury bondholders retain legal claims to payment β’ Default would trigger legal/political processes for resolution β’ Historical precedent: US has never defaulted on debt; debt ceiling standoffs resolved before default β’ Bondholders could pursue remedies through courts or political pressure Statement-II is correct: US government debt is 'fiat' debt: β’ Not backed by gold, commodities, or physical assets β’ Value derives from confidence in US government's taxing power, economic strength, and institutional stability β’ This 'full faith and credit' backing enables low borrowing costs Thus, Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 52 | Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders. Statement-II: The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect | 0.00 | Statement-I is correct: Syndicated lending involves: β’ Multiple lenders (banks, institutional investors) providing funds to a single borrower β’ Risk diversification: No single lender bears full default risk β’ Common in large corporate financing, project finance, LBOs β’ Led by arranger banks who structure and distribute the loan Statement-II is incorrect: Syndicated loans can be structured as: β’ Term loans (fixed lump sum disbursed upfront) β’ Revolving credit facilities (credit lines that can be drawn, repaid, redrawn) β’ Combination structures (term loan + revolving facility) β’ Flexibility in structuring is a key advantage of syndication Thus, Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 53 | Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee: 1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy. 2. It appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet. 3. It is insured against inflation by its very design. 4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash. Which of the statements given above are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. 1, 2 and 4 | 0.00 | Statement 1 is correct: Digital Rupee (eβΉ) is a Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC): β’ Issued by RBI as legal tender, same as physical currency β’ Integrated with RBI's monetary policy framework β’ Two types: Wholesale (interbank) and Retail (public) Statement 2 is correct: Like physical currency, digital rupee: β’ Appears as a liability on RBI's balance sheet β’ Backed by RBI's assets (foreign reserves, government securities) β’ Ensures trust and parity with physical cash Statement 3 is incorrect: Digital rupee is NOT inflation-insured: β’ Same purchasing power risks as physical rupee β’ Value depends on monetary policy, not design features β’ Inflation protection requires separate instruments (e.g., inflation-indexed bonds) Statement 4 is correct: Digital rupee is: β’ Convertible 1:1 with physical cash and bank deposits β’ Interoperable with existing payment systems (UPI, NEFT) β’ Can be exchanged at banks, ATMs, and digital wallets Thus, statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 54 | With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets? 1. Nayaputta 2. Shakyamuni 3. Tathagata | Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. 2 and 3 only | 0.00 | Epithets of Gautama Buddha verification: β’ Nayaputta (1): Incorrect. Not a recognized epithet of Buddha. May be confused with 'Nigantha Nataputta' (Mahavira, Jainism) or other terms. β’ Shakyamuni (2): Correct. Means 'Sage of the Shakya clan'; widely used epithet emphasizing Buddha's lineage and enlightenment. Common in Mahayana texts. β’ Tathagata (3): Correct. Means 'Thus-Gone One' or 'Thus-Come One'; Buddha's self-reference in Pali Canon, indicating one who has attained ultimate truth. Used in both Theravada and Mahayana traditions. Thus, Shakyamuni and Tathagata (2 and 3) are authentic epithets of Gautama Buddha. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 55 | Consider the following information:
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Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. 2 and 3 | 0.00 | Row-wise verification:
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| 56 | Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. Yusuf Adil Shah | 0.00 | Yusuf Adil Shah (founder of Adil Shahi dynasty of Bijapur) permitted the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal (in present-day Karnataka) in the early 16th century: β’ Context: Portuguese sought strategic ports on India's west coast for trade and naval dominance β’ Bhatkal: Important port for horse trade and spices; Yusuf Adil Shah allowed Portuguese factory/fort to secure alliance against common enemies β’ Significance: Part of Portuguese strategy to control Indian Ocean trade routes Other options: β’ Krishnadevaraya (Vijayanagara): Opposed Portuguese expansion; focused on Deccan campaigns β’ Narasimha Saluva (Vijayanagara): Earlier ruler; not associated with Portuguese agreements β’ Muhammad Shah III (Bahmani): Bahmani Sultanate fragmented before Portuguese arrival in India Thus, Yusuf Adil Shah granted the permission. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 57 | With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements: 1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities. 2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. 2 only | 0.00 | Statement 1 is incorrect: Ryotwari Settlement (introduced by Thomas Munro, not Cornwallis): β’ Peasants (ryots) paid revenue directly to government β’ Revenue rates were high and rigid; little provision for remission during calamities β’ In practice, peasants often faced distress sales and indebtedness during crop failures β’ Cornwallis is associated with Permanent Settlement, not Ryotwari Statement 2 is correct: Permanent Settlement (1793) under Cornwallis: β’ Zamindars recognized as landowners with fixed revenue demand β’ 'Sunset Law': Failure to pay revenue by fixed date led to auction of zamindari rights β’ Intended to ensure revenue certainty but often led to zamindar exploitation of peasants Thus, only statement 2 is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 58 | Consider the following statements: 1. There are no parables in Upanishads. 2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas. Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Both 1 and 2 | 0.00 | Statement 1 is correct: Upanishads are philosophical texts focused on: β’ Metaphysical discussions (Brahman, Atman, Moksha) β’ Dialogues between teachers and students β’ Meditative insights and direct realization β’ Unlike Puranas or Jatakas, Upanishads do not use narrative parables or fables to convey teachings Statement 2 is correct: Chronological order of composition: β’ Principal Upanishads: c. 800-200 BCE (late Vedic period) β’ Puranas: c. 300-1000 CE (post-Vedic, early medieval period) β’ Upanishads represent the concluding part of Vedic literature (Vedanta), while Puranas are later smriti texts Thus, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 59 | Consider the following statements: 1. India is a member of the International Grains Council. 2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. 1 only | 0.00 | Statement 1 is correct: India is a member of the International Grains Council (IGC): β’ IGC is an intergovernmental organization promoting cooperation in global grain trade β’ Members include major producers, consumers, and traders of grains β’ India participates to monitor global grain markets, share data, and engage in policy dialogue Statement 2 is incorrect: IGC membership is NOT mandatory for grain trade: β’ Grain exports/imports are governed by WTO rules, bilateral agreements, and national policies β’ Non-member countries freely trade grains (e.g., many African nations trade without IGC membership) β’ IGC facilitates information sharing and market transparency but does not regulate trade access Thus, only statement 1 is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 60 | Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Garba dance | 0.00 | UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage inscriptions timeline: β’ Chhau dance: Inscribed in 2010 (Odisha, Jharkhand, West Bengal) β’ Kumbh Mela: Inscribed in 2017 β’ Durga Puja in Kolkata: Inscribed in 2021 β’ Garba dance (Gujarat): Inscribed in 2023 (latest among options) Garba dance was added to the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity during the 18th session of the Intergovernmental Committee (December 2023, Botswana). Thus, Garba dance is the latest inclusion among the given options. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 61 | Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha | 0.00 | Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the first (provisional) President of the Constituent Assembly: β’ Elected on December 11, 1946, as interim President β’ Presided over initial sessions until December 1946 β’ Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as permanent President on December 11, 1946, and assumed office shortly after β’ Sinha was a distinguished scholar, lawyer, and nationalist; played key role in early constitutional deliberations Other options: β’ C. Rajagopalachari: Last Governor-General of India; not Constituent Assembly President β’ Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: Chairman of Drafting Committee; not Assembly President β’ T.T. Krishnamachari: Member of Constituent Assembly; Finance Minister later Thus, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the provisional President. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 62 | With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements: 1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States. 2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. 1 only | 0.00 | Statement 1 is correct: Government of India Act, 1935 proposed: β’ All India Federation comprising British Indian provinces and Princely States β’ Federation to have bicameral federal legislature and federal court β’ However, federation never materialized as Princely States did not accede Statement 2 is incorrect: Defence and Foreign Affairs were RESERVED subjects: β’ Kept under the control of the Governor-General (representing British Crown) β’ Not subject to control by federal legislature or ministers β’ Part of 'safeguards' to retain British control over critical areas Thus, only statement 1 is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 63 | Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Madhyama-vyayoga | 0.00 | Madhyama-vyayoga is a Sanskrit play attributed to Bhasa: β’ Bhasa: Pre-Kalidasa playwright (c. 2nd-3rd century CE); 13 plays discovered in 1912 (Trivandrum manuscripts) β’ Madhyama-vyayoga: 'The Middle One'; one-act play based on Mahabharata episode involving Bhima and a Brahmin boy β’ Style: Simple language, strong dramatic situations, adherence to classical norms Other options: β’ Kavyalankara: Poetics treatise by Bhamaha or Udbhata, not Bhasa β’ Natyashastra: Ancient treatise on performing arts by Bharata Muni β’ Mahabhashya: Commentary on Panini's grammar by Patanjali Thus, Madhyama-vyayoga is the work attributed to Bhasa. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 64 | Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on: | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Sarvastivada Vinaya | 0.00 | Sanghabhuti (Sanghabhadra) was a Sarvastivada Buddhist scholar who traveled to China (c. 380-400 CE): β’ Authored commentary on Sarvastivada Vinaya (monastic discipline code) β’ His work helped transmit Sarvastivada monastic traditions to Chinese Buddhism β’ Collaborated with Chinese monks on translation projects Other options: β’ Prajnaparamita Sutra: Mahayana texts; commentaries by Nagarjuna, Asanga, not Sanghabhuti β’ Visuddhimagga: Theravada comprehensive manual by Buddhaghosa (5th century CE, Sri Lanka) β’ Lalitavistara: Mahayana biography of Buddha; not associated with Sanghabhuti Thus, Sanghabhuti authored a commentary on Sarvastivada Vinaya. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 65 | Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO: 1. Shantiniketan 2. Rani-ki-Vav 3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas 4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya How many of the above properties were included in 2023? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. Only two | 0.00 | UNESCO World Heritage inscriptions in 2023 (45th session, Riyadh): β’ Shantiniketan (West Bengal): Inscribed in 2023 as cultural property (associated with Rabindranath Tagore) β’ Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas (Karnataka): Inscribed in 2023 (Belur, Halebidu, Somanathapura temples) β’ Rani-ki-Vav (Gujarat): Inscribed in 2014 (stepwell on Saraswati river) β’ Mahabodhi Temple Complex (Bihar): Inscribed in 2002 (Buddhist pilgrimage site) Thus, two properties (Shantiniketan and Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas) were included in 2023. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 66 | As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: 1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. 1, 2 and 3 | 0.00 | Article 368 empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution: β’ Text of Article 368(1): 'Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution...' β’ Addition: Introducing new provisions (e.g., Fundamental Duties via 42nd Amendment) β’ Variation: Modifying existing provisions (e.g., changing voting age from 21 to 18 via 61st Amendment) β’ Repeal: Removing provisions (e.g., abolishing privy purses via 26th Amendment) Limitations: Amendments cannot violate the 'basic structure' of the Constitution (Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973). Thus, Parliament may amend by addition, variation, or repeal (all three). | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 67 | Consider the following countries: 1. Italy 2. Japan 3. Nigeria 4. South Korea 5. South Africa Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. 1, 2 and 4 | 0.00 | Demographic trends verification: β’ Italy (1): Yes - One of world's lowest fertility rates (~1.2); rapidly ageing population; population decline projected β’ Japan (2): Yes - World's most aged society; fertility rate ~1.3; population declining since 2010 β’ Nigeria (3): No - High fertility rate (~5.0); young population; one of fastest-growing populations globally β’ South Korea (4): Yes - World's lowest fertility rate (~0.7); severe ageing; population decline accelerated post-2020 β’ South Africa (5): No - Moderate fertility (~2.4); population still growing, though slowing Thus, Italy, Japan, and South Korea (1, 2, and 4) are frequently cited for demographic challenges of low birth rates and ageing. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 68 | Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament? 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills. 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. 3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it. 4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha. | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. 1, 2 and 3 | 0.00 | Money Bill provisions under Constitution: β’ Statement 1: Correct - Article 109 details special procedure for Money Bills in Parliament β’ Statement 2: Correct - Article 109(1): Money Bills can only be introduced in Lok Sabha, not Rajya Sabha β’ Statement 3: Correct - Article 109(2): Rajya Sabha must return Money Bill within 14 days with/without recommendations; Lok Sabha may accept/reject recommendations; Rajya Sabha cannot reject or delay beyond 14 days β’ Statement 4: Incorrect - Lok Sabha is NOT bound to accept Rajya Sabha's recommendations; it may reject all suggestions and pass the Bill as originally introduced Thus, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 69 | Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?
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Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. 2, 3 and 4 | 0.00 | Rank equivalence verification:
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| 70 | The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members? 1. Governor of the Constituent State 2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State 3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India 4. The Home Minister of India | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. 1, 2 and 3 only | 0.00 | North Eastern Council composition post-2002 amendment: β’ Governor of each constituent state: Member (1) β β’ Chief Minister of each constituent state: Member (2) β β’ Three members nominated by President of India: Members (3) β β’ Union Home Minister: NOT a member; Council is chaired by Union Home Minister but he is ex-officio Chairperson, not a 'member' per the Act's composition clause The 2002 amendment made NEC a body of elected representatives (Chief Ministers) rather than Governors-dominated, enhancing regional participation. Sikkim was added as 8th member state. Thus, members are Governors, Chief Ministers, and Presidential nominees (1, 2, and 3 only). | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 71 | How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. Four | 0.00 | Four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted in India: 1. 1952: Under Delimitation Commission Act, 1952; based on 1951 Census 2. 1963: Under Delimitation Commission Act, 1962; based on 1961 Census 3. 1973: Under Delimitation Commission Act, 1972; based on 1971 Census 4. 2002: Under Delimitation Act, 2002; based on 2001 Census (implemented in 2008) Note: Delimitation was frozen after 1971 Census by 42nd Amendment (1976) until 2001; extended to 2026 by 84th Amendment (2001). No commission after 2002 till December 2023. Thus, four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 72 | The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. Maithili | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. 1, 2 and 3 | 0.00 | 71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added three languages to Eighth Schedule: β’ Konkani (1): Added β β’ Manipuri (Meitei) (2): Added β β’ Nepali (3): Added β β’ Maithili (4): Added later by 92nd Amendment Act, 2003 (not 71st Amendment) Eighth Schedule originally had 14 languages (1950); now has 22 languages after successive amendments. Thus, Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali (1, 2, and 3) were included by the 71st Amendment. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 73 | Consider the following pairs:
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Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. Only one | 0.00 | Party-leader matching verification:
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| 74 | Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. 1 and 2 only | 0.00 | Constitutional Part verification: β’ Statement 1: Correct β - Part IX A (Articles 243P-243ZG): 'The Municipalities'; added by 74th Amendment Act, 1992 β’ Statement 2: Correct β - Part XVIII (Articles 352-360): 'Emergency Provisions'; covers National, State, and Financial emergencies β’ Statement 3: Incorrect β - Amendment provisions are in Part XX (Article 368), but Part XX is titled 'Amendment of the Constitution', not 'Provisions related to amendment' - However, technically Article 368 is in Part XX, so this is a matter of interpretation. But strictly, Part XX contains ONLY Article 368 on amendment procedure. - Given UPSC's precise wording expectations, Statement 3 is considered incorrect as Part XX is specifically 'Amendment of the Constitution', not general 'provisions related to amendment' Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 75 | Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List. | 0.00 | Constitutional List verification: β’ Option 1: Incorrect β - Inter-State trade and commerce: Entry 42, Union List (List I) - Parliament has exclusive power β’ Option 2: Incorrect β - Inter-State migration: Entry 81, Union List (List I) - Parliament legislates on migration β’ Option 3: Correct β - Inter-State quarantine: Entry 29, Union List (List I) - Union subject; crucial for national health security β’ Option 4: Incorrect β - Corporation tax: Entry 85, Union List (List I) - Levied and collected by Union; though shared with States via Finance Commission Thus, only 'Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List' is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 76 | Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. Article 21 | 0.00 | Right to Privacy under Indian Constitution: β’ Landmark judgment: Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs Union of India (2017) β’ Supreme Court unanimously held: Right to Privacy is a fundamental right β’ Placed under Article 21: 'Protection of life and personal liberty' β’ Reasoning: Privacy is intrinsic to dignity, liberty, and freedom guaranteed by Article 21 β’ Also linked to freedoms under Article 19(1)(a) (expression) and 19(1)(d) (movement), but primary anchor is Article 21 Other options: β’ Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination β’ Article 16: Equality of opportunity in public employment β’ Article 19: Protection of six freedoms (speech, assembly, etc.) Thus, Right to Privacy is placed under Article 21. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 77 | What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs? 1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee 2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs 3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. 1 and 3 only | 0.00 | CDS duties as per Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules: β’ Duty 1: Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee β - CDS chairs the tri-service Chiefs of Staff Committee to promote jointness β’ Duty 2: Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs β - INCORRECT: CDS does NOT have operational command over Service Chiefs - Service Chiefs retain command of their respective services; CDS is 'first among equals' - Operational command remains with Service Chiefs; CDS focuses on coordination and integration β’ Duty 3: Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters β - CDS provides integrated military advice to Raksha Mantri - Covers procurement, training, infrastructure, and joint planning Thus, duties 1 and 3 are correct; CDS does not exercise command over Service Chiefs. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 78 | Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called: | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Operation Sadbhavana | 0.00 | Indian Army's civic action operations: β’ Operation Sadbhavana: Correct β - Launched in J&K and Northeast to win hearts and minds - Activities: Medical camps, education support, infrastructure development, vocational training - Aims to bridge civil-military gap and foster development in remote areas β’ Operation Sankalp: Incorrect β - Indian Navy's mission for maritime security in Indian Ocean Region β’ Operation Maitri: Incorrect β - Humanitarian assistance mission (e.g., Nepal earthquake relief 2015) β’ Operation Madad: Incorrect β - Indian Navy's disaster relief operations (e.g., Kerala floods 2018) Thus, 'Operation Sadbhavana' is the Army's operation for local population upliftment. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 79 | The longest border between any two countries in the world is between: | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. Canada and the United States of America | 0.00 | World's longest international border: β’ Canada-USA border: 8,891 km (including Alaska-Canada border) β - Longest undefended border globally - Established by treaties (1783, 1818, 1846, 1908) β’ Chile-Argentina border: ~5,300 km (Andes mountain range) β’ China-India border: ~3,488 km (disputed; includes Line of Actual Control) β’ Kazakhstan-Russia border: ~7,644 km (second longest) Thus, Canada and USA share the world's longest international border. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 80 | Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct? 1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee. 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha. 3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice. | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. 1 and 3 only | 0.00 | Lok Sabha Ethics Committee provisions: β’ Statement 1: Correct β - First constituted as ad-hoc committee in 1997; made permanent in 2000 β’ Statement 2: Incorrect β - Complaints can be made by: * Any Member of Lok Sabha * Any person with prior permission of the Chairman (for Rajya Sabha matters) or Speaker (for Lok Sabha) - Not restricted to only Lok Sabha members β’ Statement 3: Correct β - Committee cannot inquire into matters that are sub-judice (under judicial consideration) - Prevents conflict between parliamentary and judicial processes Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 81 | Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam': 1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha. 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act. 3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes. Which of the statements given above are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. 2 and 3 only | 0.00 | Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (Constitution 106th Amendment Act, 2023) provisions: β’ Statement 1: Incorrect β - Reservation for women in Lok Sabha/State Assemblies will take effect AFTER delimitation exercise based on first Census post-enactment - NOT automatically from 18th Lok Sabha; delimitation is prerequisite β’ Statement 2: Correct β - Section 4 of the Act: Reservation shall be in force for 15 years from commencement - Parliament may extend by law β’ Statement 3: Correct β - Section 3: Within seats reserved for SCs/STs, one-third shall be reserved for women from those categories - Ensures intersectional representation (SC/ST women) Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 82 | Which of the following statements about 'Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023' are correct? 1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh. 2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune). 3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation. 4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise. | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. 2, 3 and 4 | 0.00 | Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 details: β’ Statement 1: Incorrect β - Mitra Shakti is joint exercise between India and SRI LANKA, not Bangladesh - India-Bangladesh joint exercise is 'Sampriti' β’ Statement 2: Correct β - 8th edition commenced at Aundh Military Station, Pune (October 2023) β’ Statement 3: Correct β - Focus: Counter-terrorism operations under UN Charter Chapter VII - Includes tactical drills, urban warfare, hostage rescue scenarios β’ Statement 4: Correct β - First time Indian Air Force participated alongside Army - Enhanced tri-service integration and joint operational capability Thus, statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 83 | A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to: | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case. | 0.00 | Writ of Prohibition under Indian Constitution: β’ Issued by: Supreme Court (Article 32) or High Courts (Article 226) β’ Purpose: Prevent lower courts/tribunals from exceeding jurisdiction or acting contrary to law β’ Scope: Only against judicial/quasi-judicial bodies, NOT executive authorities β’ Timing: Issued during pending proceedings (not after judgment) Option analysis: β’ Option 1: Incorrect - Prohibition not issued to government officers (that's Mandamus or Injunction) β’ Option 2: Incorrect - Courts cannot prohibit legislature from making laws (separation of powers) β’ Option 3: Correct β - Prohibition stops lower court from continuing ultra vires proceedings β’ Option 4: Incorrect - Policy challenges use Certiorari or other remedies, not Prohibition Thus, Writ of Prohibition prohibits lower courts from continuing proceedings. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 84 | Consider the following statements: 1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe. 2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. 2 only | 0.00 | Scheduled Tribe (ST) recognition process: β’ Statement 1: Incorrect β - Power to specify STs lies with PARLIAMENT (Article 342), not Governor - President issues public notification specifying STs for each State/UT - Governor has no constitutional role in ST recognition β’ Statement 2: Correct β - ST list is State/UT-specific - Example: Gonds are ST in MP, Chhattisgarh, but not in all states where they reside - Community must be notified as ST in that particular State to avail benefits there Thus, only statement 2 is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 85 | With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements: 1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament. 2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. 2 only | 0.00 | Union Budget constitutional provisions: β’ Statement 1: Incorrect β - Article 112: President causes Annual Financial Statement (Budget) to be laid before Parliament - Finance Minister presents it on behalf of the GOVERNMENT (Council of Ministers), not specifically 'on behalf of Prime Minister' - Wording is constitutionally imprecise β’ Statement 2: Correct β - Article 113(3): No demand for grant shall be made except on recommendation of President - Ensures executive control over financial proposals; Parliament cannot initiate spending - Applies to all grants (voted, charged, supplementary) Thus, only statement 2 is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 86 | Who of the following is the author of the books 'The India Way' and 'Why Bharat Matters'? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar | 0.00 | Author verification: β’ 'The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World' (2020): Authored by Dr. S. Jaishankar - Discusses India's foreign policy philosophy, strategic autonomy, and global engagement β’ 'Why Bharat Matters' (2024): Authored by Dr. S. Jaishankar - Explores India's civilizational perspective, diplomatic priorities, and vision for global order Dr. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar is External Affairs Minister of India (since 2019) and former diplomat. Other options: β’ Bhupender Yadav: Union Minister; not author of these books β’ Nalin Mehta: Academic/journalist; writes on politics/media β’ Shashi Tharoor: Author of many books, but not these two titles Thus, Subrahmanyam Jaishankar is the author. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 87 | Consider the following pairs:
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Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. Only two pairs | 0.00 | Pair verification:
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| 88 | Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe. Statement-II: Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I | 0.00 | Sumed Pipeline facts: β’ Statement-I: Correct β - SUMED (Suez-Mediterranean) Pipeline: Critical alternative to Suez Canal for oil transport - Carries crude oil from Persian Gulf (via Red Sea) to Mediterranean, then to Europe - Capacity: ~2.5 million barrels/day; strategic for energy security β’ Statement-II: Correct β - Route: Ain Sukhna (Red Sea) to Sidi Kerir (Mediterranean) in Egypt - Length: 320 km; twin pipelines for bidirectional flow β’ Explanation link: Statement-II explains Statement-I β - The physical connection between Red Sea and Mediterranean (Statement-II) is precisely why Sumed serves as strategic route for Gulf oil to Europe (Statement-I) Thus, both statements are correct and II explains I. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 89 | Consider the following statements: Statement-I: There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region. Statement-II: There have been military takeovers/coups d'Γ©tat in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I | 0.00 | Sahel region security analysis: β’ Statement-I: Correct β - Sahel (Mali, Burkina Faso, Niger, Chad, Mauritania) faces severe instability - Drivers: Jihadist insurgencies (ISIS, Al-Qaeda), ethnic conflicts, climate stress, weak governance - Humanitarian impact: 30+ million need aid; 2+ million displaced β’ Statement-II: Correct β - Recent coups: Mali (2020, 2021), Burkina Faso (2022, 2023), Niger (2023), Guinea (2021) - Military juntas replaced elected governments; regional body ECOWAS imposed sanctions β’ Explanation link: Statement-II explains Statement-I β - Military coups (Statement-II) have weakened democratic institutions, disrupted security cooperation, and created power vacuums exploited by armed groups, directly contributing to worsening instability (Statement-I) Thus, both statements are correct and II explains I. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 90 | Consider the following statements: 1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form. 2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Both 1 and 2 | 0.00 | Red Sea hydrology: β’ Statement 1: Correct β - Red Sea lies in arid subtropical zone - Annual precipitation: <100 mm over most of sea; <50 mm in southern parts - High evaporation (~2000 mm/year) exceeds precipitation, contributing to high salinity β’ Statement 2: Correct β - No permanent rivers flow into Red Sea - Surrounding regions are hyper-arid (Arabian Desert, Sahara); wadis are ephemeral - Minor freshwater input from seasonal flash floods, but no significant river inflow - Contrasts with Mediterranean (Nile) or Persian Gulf (Tigris-Euphrates) Thus, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 91 | According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. Power plants using fossil fuels | 0.00 | SOβ emission sources (EPA data): β’ Power plants using fossil fuels: Largest source β - Coal-fired power plants emit ~60-70% of US SOβ emissions - Coal contains sulphur; combustion releases SOβ - Control technologies: Flue gas desulfurization (scrubbers) β’ Other options: - Locomotives: Minor source; diesel engines emit NOx, PM, but low SOβ due to low-sulphur diesel - Ships: Significant globally (bunker fuel), but EPA data shows power plants dominate in US context - Metal extraction: Smelting releases SOβ (e.g., copper, zinc), but smaller than power sector EPA's National Emissions Inventory consistently identifies fossil fuel combustion for electricity as top SOβ source. Thus, power plants using fossil fuels are the largest source. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 92 | Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India does not import apples from the United States of America. Statement-II: In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct | 0.00 | Apple imports and GM food regulations: β’ Statement-I: Incorrect β - India DOES import apples from USA - US apples (Washington state) entered Indian market after 2023 trade negotiations - Prior ban lifted; imports subject to phytosanitary certification β’ Statement-II: Correct β - Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 + GM regulations require approval from Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) - No GM food can be imported/manufactured without GEAC clearance - Applies to GM crops, ingredients, processed foods Thus, Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 93 | With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration 1. He/She shall not preside. 2. He/She shall not have the right to speak. 3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. 1 and 2 only | 0.00 | Speaker removal procedure (Article 94, Rules of Procedure): β’ Statement 1: Correct β - Rule 260: Speaker shall not preside when resolution for their removal is under consideration - Deputy Speaker or other member presides during such proceedings β’ Statement 2: Correct β - Speaker has no right to speak or participate in debate on their own removal resolution - Ensures impartiality and procedural fairness β’ Statement 3: Incorrect β - Speaker CAN vote in the first instance (as member) on removal resolution - Only barred from casting tie-breaking vote (as Speaker) during such proceedings - Rule 260(3): Speaker may vote as member but not exercise casting vote Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 94 | With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. 1 and 2 | 0.00 | Bill lapse provisions (Article 107, 108): β’ Statement 1: Correct β - Article 107(3): Bill pending in Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution - Standard parliamentary practice β’ Statement 2: Correct β - Article 107(4): Bill passed by LS but pending in RS lapses on LS dissolution - Exception: Bills pending in RS but not LS do not lapse (RS is continuing house) β’ Statement 3: Incorrect β - Article 108(5): If President has notified intention to summon joint sitting, the bill does NOT lapse on LS dissolution - Joint sitting can still be held after fresh LS elections to resolve deadlock - Ensures important legislation isn't lost due to dissolution timing Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 95 | With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers. 2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session. 3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. 2 and 3 | 0.00 | Parliamentary procedures: β’ Statement 1: Incorrect β - Article 85(2): President prorogues Houses 'from time to time' - President acts on aid and advice of Council of Ministers (Article 74) - No discretionary power in prorogation β’ Statement 2: Correct β - Prorogation typically follows adjournment sine die (end of session) - But President can prorogue even when House is in session (e.g., to cut short proceedings) - Prorogation ends session; adjournment ends sitting β’ Statement 3: Correct β - Article 85(2)(b): President dissolves Lok Sabha - Convention: Done on Council of Ministers' advice (e.g., after no-confidence, or PM's recommendation) - 'Exceptional circumstances': Rare discretionary use (e.g., hung assembly with no viable government) Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 96 | Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently. Statement-II: The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect | 0.00 | EU climate legislation: β’ Statement-I: Correct β - Net-Zero Industry Act (NZIA): Approved by European Parliament in March 2024 - Aims to boost EU manufacturing of clean tech (solar, wind, batteries, electrolyzers) - Target: 40% of EU's annual deployment needs met by domestic production by 2030 β’ Statement-II: Incorrect β - EU's carbon neutrality target is 2050 (European Climate Law), NOT 2040 - 2040 target is for 90% net GHG reduction (interim goal), not full neutrality - NZIA does not aim for 100% domestic clean tech; focuses on strategic autonomy, not self-sufficiency Thus, Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 97 | Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries. Statement-II: Venezuela has the world's largest oil reserves. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct | 0.00 | Venezuela's economic and migration situation: β’ Statement-I: Incorrect β - Venezuela continues to face severe economic crisis (hyperinflation, GDP contraction, infrastructure collapse) - Over 7.7 million Venezuelans have emigrated since 2015 (UNHCR data) - No evidence of 'rapid recovery' or successful prevention of emigration; outflow continues β’ Statement-II: Correct β - Venezuela holds world's largest proven oil reserves: ~303 billion barrels (OPEC 2023) - Mostly heavy crude in Orinoco Belt; requires specialized refining - Reserves not fully producible due to underinvestment, sanctions, technical challenges Thus, Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 98 | With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements: 1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding. 2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised. 3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | D. 1, 2 and 3 | 0.00 | DILRMP (Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme) features: β’ Statement 1: Correct β - Centrally Sponsored Scheme with 100% Central funding for components like computerization, digitization, survey/resurvey - States implement; Centre funds fully to ensure uniform progress β’ Statement 2: Correct β - Core component: Digitization of Cadastral Maps (spatial records of land parcels) - Integrated with Textual Records (RoR) for comprehensive land information system - Enables GIS-based land management and dispute reduction β’ Statement 3: Correct β - 'Transliteration of Records of Rights': Initiative to convert RoR from local scripts to Constitutionally recognized languages (e.g., Devanagari for Hindi belt) - Enhances accessibility, interoperability, and citizen services across states Thus, all three statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 99 | With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the following statements: 1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility. 2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. 2 only | 0.00 | PMSMA (Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan) details: β’ Statement 1: Incorrect β - PMSMA provides free, comprehensive antenatal care on the 9th of every month - Covers: Check-ups, tests, counseling for pregnant women (any trimester, not just 2nd/3rd) - Does NOT include six months post-delivery care; that's covered under other schemes (e.g., Home Based Newborn Care) β’ Statement 2: Correct β - 'Private Sector Participation': Specialists (OBGYN, physicians, radiologists) from private sector can volunteer on 9th of month - Provides additional capacity in government facilities; enhances quality and access - Part of 'Adopt a Facility' approach for public-private collaboration Thus, only statement 2 is correct. | |||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
| 100 | With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements: 1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years. 2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary. 3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of βΉ3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. 4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? | Unattempted | Not Attempted | B. 2 and 3 only | 0.00 | PM-SYM scheme provisions: β’ Statement 1: Incorrect β - Entry age: 18 to 40 years (not 21-40) - Allows younger workers to contribute longer for better corpus β’ Statement 2: Correct β - Contribution is age-specific: Younger subscribers pay less monthly; older pay more - Example: Age 18: βΉ55/month; Age 40: βΉ200/month (to reach same corpus by 60) - Equal contribution by Central Government β’ Statement 3: Correct β - Assured pension: βΉ3,000/month after age 60 - Payable for life; inflation-indexed β’ Statement 4: Incorrect β - Family pension: Applicable only to SPOUSE after subscriber's death - Unmarried daughters are NOT eligible for family pension under PM-SYM - (Contrast with other schemes like NPS where children may be nominees) Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct. |
1
0.00 marks
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The atmosphere is heated more by incoming solar radiation than by terrestrial radiation.
Statement-II:
Carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases in the atmosphere are good absorbers of long wave radiation.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Explanation:
Statement-I is incorrect: The atmosphere is heated more by terrestrial (longwave) radiation emitted from Earth's surface than by direct incoming solar (shortwave) radiation.
Statement-II is correct: Greenhouse gases like CO2, methane, and water vapor are efficient absorbers of longwave infrared radiation emitted by Earth, which is the basis of the greenhouse effect.
Thus, Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
2
0.00 marks
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Thickness of the troposphere at the equator is much greater as compared to poles.
Statement-II:
At the equator, heat is transported to great heights by strong convectional currents.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct: The troposphere is thicker at the equator (~16-18 km) than at poles (~8 km) due to higher temperatures causing greater thermal expansion.
Statement-II is correct: Intense solar heating at the equator generates strong convectional currents that transport heat vertically to great heights.
Statement-II explains Statement-I: The strong convectional currents at the equator (Statement-II) are the reason why the troposphere is thicker there (Statement-I).
3
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Consider the following:
1. Pyroclastic debris
2. Ash and dust
3. Nitrogen compounds
4. Sulphur compounds
How many of the above are products of volcanic eruptions?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. All four
Explanation:
All four are products of volcanic eruptions:
β’ Pyroclastic debris: Fragmented volcanic material ejected during explosive eruptions
β’ Ash and dust: Fine particles of pulverized rock and glass released during eruptions
β’ Nitrogen compounds: Volcanic gases include nitrogen oxides released from magma
β’ Sulphur compounds: SO2 and H2S are major volcanic gases contributing to acid rain and atmospheric effects
Volcanic eruptions release a complex mixture of solid, liquid, and gaseous materials.
4
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Which of the following is/are correct inference/inferences from isothermal maps in the month of January?
1. The isotherms deviate to the north over the ocean and to the south over the continent.
2. The presence of cold ocean currents, Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift make the North Atlantic Ocean colder and the isotherms bend towards the north.
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. 1 only
Explanation:
Inference 1 is correct: In January (Northern Hemisphere winter), isotherms bend poleward over relatively warmer oceans and equatorward over colder continents due to differential heating.
Inference 2 is incorrect: The Gulf Stream and North Atlantic Drift are warm currents, not cold currents. They make the North Atlantic Ocean warmer, causing isotherms to bend poleward (northward), but the statement incorrectly describes them as cold currents.
Thus, only inference 1 is correct.
5
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Which of the following countries are well known as the two largest cocoa producers in the world?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Cote d'Ivoire and Ghana
Explanation:
CΓ΄te d'Ivoire (Ivory Coast) and Ghana are the world's two largest cocoa producers, together accounting for approximately 60% of global cocoa supply.
β’ CΓ΄te d'Ivoire: ~2.2 million tonnes annually (largest producer)
β’ Ghana: ~1.1 million tonnes annually (second largest)
Both countries are located in West Africa's 'Cocoa Belt', where tropical climate conditions are ideal for cocoa cultivation. Other options list African countries not known for cocoa production.
6
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With reference to the Himalayan rivers joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj from West to East, which one of the following sequences is correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. Ghaghara-Gomati-Gandak-Kosi
Explanation:
The correct west-to-east sequence of Himalayan tributaries joining the Ganga downstream of Prayagraj is:
1. Ghaghara (joins near Chhapra, Bihar)
2. Gomati (joins near Varanasi, UP)
3. Gandak (joins near Hajipur, Bihar)
4. Kosi (joins near Kursela, Bihar)
This sequence follows the geographical alignment of these rivers as they flow from the Himalayas and merge with the Ganga in eastern Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.
7
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Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Rainfall is one of the reasons for weathering of rocks.
Statement-II:
Rain water contains carbon dioxide in solution.
Statement-III:
Rain water contains atmospheric oxygen.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. Both Statement-II and Statement-III are correct and both of them explain Statement-I
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct: Rainfall contributes to chemical weathering through dissolution, hydrolysis, and oxidation processes.
Statement-II is correct: Rainwater absorbs atmospheric CO2, forming weak carbonic acid (H2CO3), which enhances chemical weathering of rocks like limestone.
Statement-III is correct: Rainwater contains dissolved atmospheric oxygen, which facilitates oxidation weathering of iron-bearing minerals.
Both II and III explain Statement-I: Carbonic acid (from CO2) causes dissolution weathering, while dissolved oxygen enables oxidation weathering. Hence, both explain how rainfall causes rock weathering.
8
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Consider the following countries:
1. Finland
2. Germany
3. Norway
4. Russia
How many of the above countries have a border with the North Sea?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. Only two
Explanation:
Countries with North Sea borders among the listed options:
β’ Finland: No - Borders the Baltic Sea, not the North Sea
β’ Germany: Yes - Has coastline along the North Sea (Schleswig-Holstein, Lower Saxony)
β’ Norway: Yes - Southern coast borders the North Sea
β’ Russia: No - Borders the Baltic Sea and Arctic Ocean, not the North Sea
Thus, only Germany and Norway (two countries) have borders with the North Sea.
9
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Consider the following information:
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
| Waterfall | Region | River | |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | Dhuandhar | Malwa | Narmada |
| 2. | Hundru | Chota Nagpur | Subarnarekha |
| 3. | Gersoppa | Western Ghats | Netravati |
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. Only one
Explanation:
Row-wise verification:
Conclusion: Only two rows (1 and 2) are correctly matched.
Answer: Only two (Option Index 1).
| Row | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| 1 (Dhuandhar) | Correct | Located in Malwa region (MP), on Narmada River near Jabalpur |
| 2 (Hundru) | Correct | Located in Chota Nagpur Plateau (Jharkhand), on Subarnarekha River |
| 3 (Gersoppa) | Incorrect | Located in Western Ghats (Karnataka) but on Sharavati River, not Netravati |
10
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Consider the following information:
In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
| Region | Name of mountain range | Type of mountain | |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | Central Asia | Vosges | Fold mountain |
| 2. | Europe | Alps | Block mountain |
| 3. | North America | Appalachians | Fold mountain |
| 4. | South America | Andes | Fold mountain |
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. Only one
Explanation:
Row-wise verification:
Conclusion: Two rows (3 and 4) are correctly matched.
Answer: Only two (Option Index 1).
| Row | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| 1 (Vosges) | Incorrect | Vosges mountains are in Europe (France/Germany border), not Central Asia; they are block/fault-block mountains, not fold mountains |
| 2 (Alps) | Incorrect | Alps are fold mountains (formed by African-Eurasian plate collision), not block mountains |
| 3 (Appalachians) | Correct | Located in North America; ancient fold mountains formed during Paleozoic era |
| 4 (Andes) | Correct | Located in South America; young fold mountains formed by Nazca-South American plate subduction |
11
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Consider the following airports:
1. Donyi Polo Airport
2. Kushinagar International Airport
3. Vijayawada International Airport
In the recent past, which of the above have been constructed as Greenfield projects?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Greenfield airport projects are built on new sites without existing airport infrastructure:
β’ Donyi Polo Airport (Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh): Greenfield project, inaugurated in 2022
β’ Kushinagar International Airport (Uttar Pradesh): Greenfield project, inaugurated in 2021 for Buddhist pilgrimage tourism
β’ Vijayawada International Airport: Brownfield project - upgraded from existing domestic airport, not built on a new site
Thus, only airports 1 and 2 are Greenfield projects.
12
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With reference to 'water vapour', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a gas, the amount of which decreases with altitude.
2. Its percentage is maximum at the poles.
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. 1 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Water vapour concentration decreases rapidly with altitude because:
β’ Temperature decreases with height, reducing evaporation capacity
β’ Most moisture is concentrated in the lower troposphere
β’ Cold air at higher altitudes holds less water vapour
Statement 2 is incorrect: Water vapour percentage is maximum in tropical/equatorial regions due to high temperatures and evaporation, not at poles. Polar regions have very low atmospheric moisture content due to cold temperatures.
Thus, only statement 1 is correct.
13
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Consider the following description:
1. Annual and daily range of temperatures is low.
2. Precipitation occurs throughout the year.
3. Precipitation varies between 50cm-250cm.
What is this type of climate?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. Marine West coast climate
Explanation:
The described characteristics match Marine West Coast Climate (Cfb in KΓΆppen classification):
β’ Low temperature range: Maritime influence moderates temperatures; small difference between summer and winter
β’ Year-round precipitation: Westerlies bring moisture throughout the year
β’ Precipitation 50-250 cm: Moderate to high rainfall, often orographic
Equatorial climate has higher temperatures and precipitation (>250 cm). China type and Humid subtropical climates have distinct seasonal precipitation patterns and higher temperature ranges.
Examples: UK, Northwest Europe, Pacific Northwest USA.
14
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With reference to 'Coriolis force', which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. It increases with increase in wind velocity.
2. It is maximum at the poles and is absent at the equator.
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Both statements about Coriolis force are correct:
Statement 1: Coriolis force is proportional to wind velocity (F = 2Ξ©v sinΟ). Faster-moving air experiences greater deflection.
Statement 2: Coriolis force varies with latitude (sinΟ factor):
β’ Maximum at poles (sin 90Β° = 1)
β’ Zero at equator (sin 0Β° = 0)
β’ Explains why tropical cyclones don't form near equator
Coriolis force is an apparent force due to Earth's rotation, deflecting moving objects right in Northern Hemisphere and left in Southern Hemisphere.
15
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On June 21 every year, which of the following latitude(s) experience(s) a sunlight of more than 12 hours?
1. Equator
2. Tropic of Cancer
3. Tropic of Capricorn
4. Arctic Circle
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. 2 and 4
Explanation:
June 21 is the Northern Hemisphere summer solstice:
β’ Equator (0Β°): Experiences ~12 hours daylight year-round; not more than 12 hours
β’ Tropic of Cancer (23.5Β°N): Receives direct sunlight; daylight exceeds 12 hours (~13.5 hours)
β’ Tropic of Capricorn (23.5Β°S): Winter solstice in Southern Hemisphere; daylight less than 12 hours
β’ Arctic Circle (66.5Β°N): Experiences midnight sun; 24 hours of daylight
Thus, Tropic of Cancer (2) and Arctic Circle (4) experience more than 12 hours of sunlight on June 21.
16
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One of the following regions has the world's largest tropical peatland, which holds about three years worth of global carbon emissions from fossil fuels; and the possible destruction of which can exert detrimental effect on the global climate. Which one of the following denotes that region?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. Congo Basin
Explanation:
The Congo Basin contains the world's largest tropical peatland complex, discovered in 2017:
β’ Location: Central Congo Basin, spanning DRC and Republic of Congo
β’ Area: ~145,500 kmΒ² of peatlands
β’ Carbon storage: ~30 billion tonnes of carbon (equivalent to ~3 years of global fossil fuel emissions)
β’ Ecological significance: Critical carbon sink; drainage or degradation would release massive CO2
The Amazon has significant forests but smaller peatland areas. Kikori (Papua New Guinea) and Rio de la Plata (South America) are not known for major tropical peatlands.
17
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With reference to perfluoroalkyl and polyfluoroalkyl substances (PFAS) that are used in making many consumer products, consider the following statements:
1. PFAS are found to be widespread in drinking water, food and food packaging materials.
2. PFAS are not easily degraded in the environment.
3. Persistent exposure to PFAS can lead to bioaccumulation in animal bodies.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
All three statements about PFAS are correct:
Statement 1: PFAS contamination is widespread due to their use in non-stick coatings, food packaging, firefighting foams, and textiles. They leach into water supplies and food chains.
Statement 2: PFAS are called 'forever chemicals' because their strong carbon-fluorine bonds resist natural degradation processes, persisting for decades in environment.
Statement 3: PFAS bioaccumulate in organisms and biomagnify up food chains. Human exposure is linked to health issues including immune dysfunction, thyroid disorders, and certain cancers.
Regulatory agencies worldwide are increasingly restricting PFAS use due to these concerns.
18
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Consider the following:
1. Carabid beetles
2. Centipedes
3. Flies
4. Termites
5. Wasps
Parasitoid species are found in how many of the above kind of organisms?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. Only three
Explanation:
Parasitoids are organisms that live on or in a host and eventually kill it. Among the listed groups:
β’ Carabid beetles: Some species are parasitoids (e.g., certain genera parasitize caterpillars) - Yes
β’ Centipedes: Predatory but not parasitoids - No
β’ Flies: Many families include parasitoids (e.g., Tachinidae, Sarcophagidae) - Yes
β’ Termites: Social insects, not parasitoids - No
β’ Wasps: Many families are parasitoids (e.g., Ichneumonidae, Braconidae) - Yes
Thus, parasitoid species are found in three groups: Carabid beetles, Flies, and Wasps.
19
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Consider the following plants:
1. Groundnut
2. Horse-gram
3. Soybean
How many of the above belong to the pea family?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. All three
Explanation:
All three plants belong to the pea family (Fabaceae/Leguminosae):
β’ Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea): Fabaceae family; legume that fixes atmospheric nitrogen through root nodules
β’ Horse-gram (Macrotyloma uniflorum): Fabaceae family; drought-resistant pulse crop
β’ Soybean (Glycine max): Fabaceae family; major protein and oil source globally
Fabaceae is characterized by:
β’ Fruit: Legume (pod)
β’ Root nodules with Rhizobium bacteria for nitrogen fixation
β’ Papilionaceous flowers in many species
All three are important agricultural legumes.
20
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Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The Indian Flying Fox is placed under the 'vermin' category in the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972.
Statement-II:
The Indian Flying Fox feeds on the blood of other animals.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct: The Indian Flying Fox (Pteropus giganteus) is listed under Schedule V ('vermin') of the Wild Life (Protection) Act, 1972, allowing controlled management due to crop damage.
Statement-II is incorrect: Indian Flying Foxes are frugivores (fruit-eaters) and nectar-feeders. They do not feed on blood. Vampire bats (found in Americas, not India) are the only mammals that feed on blood.
Thus, Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
21
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The organisms 'Cicada, Froghopper and Pond skater' are:
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Insects
Explanation:
All three organisms are insects (Class: Insecta, Phylum: Arthropoda):
β’ Cicada: Order Hemiptera; known for loud mating calls; nymphs live underground feeding on root sap
β’ Froghopper/Spittlebug: Order Hemiptera; nymphs produce protective foam ('spittle'); adults can jump remarkably high
β’ Pond skater/Water strider: Order Hemiptera; adapted to walk on water surface using hydrophobic leg hairs
All belong to Hemiptera (true bugs), characterized by piercing-sucking mouthparts and incomplete metamorphosis.
22
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Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Many chewing gums found in the market are considered a source of environmental pollution.
Statement-II:
Many chewing gums contain plastic as gum base.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct: Discarded chewing gum is a significant urban pollutant:
β’ Non-biodegradable gum bases persist for years
β’ Removal costs municipalities millions annually
β’ Microplastics from degraded gum enter ecosystems
Statement-II is correct: Modern chewing gum bases often contain synthetic polymers (polyethylene, polyvinyl acetate) - essentially plastics - replacing traditional chicle.
Statement-II explains Statement-I: The plastic content in gum base (Statement-II) is precisely why discarded gum persists in the environment and causes pollution (Statement-I).
23
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Consider the following pairs:
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
| Country | Animal found in its natural habitat | |
|---|---|---|
| 1. | Brazil | Indri |
| 2. | Indonesia | Elk |
| 3. | Madagascar | Bonobo |
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. All three
Explanation:
Row-wise verification:
Conclusion: All three pairs are incorrectly matched.
Answer: None (Option Index 3).
| Pair | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| 1 (Brazil-Indri) | Incorrect | Indri is a lemur endemic to Madagascar, not Brazil. Brazil's native primates include howler monkeys, capuchins, and marmosets |
| 2 (Indonesia-Elk) | Incorrect | Elk (Wapiti) are native to North America and parts of East/Central Asia, not Indonesia. Indonesia's large mammals include orangutans, Sumatran tigers, and Javan rhinos |
| 3 (Madagascar-Bonobo) | Incorrect | Bonobos are endemic to the Democratic Republic of Congo (Central Africa), not Madagascar. Madagascar's primates are exclusively lemurs |
24
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Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization:
1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations.
2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis.
3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: World Toilet Organization (WTO) is an independent non-profit NGO founded in 2001, not a UN agency. However, it collaborates with UN-Water and helped establish World Toilet Day (November 19), which was adopted by UN General Assembly.
Statement 2 is correct: WTO initiated:
β’ World Toilet Summit (annual conference)
β’ World Toilet Day (Nov 19, now UN-recognized)
β’ World Toilet College (capacity building for sanitation professionals)
Statement 3 is incorrect: WTO focuses on advocacy, awareness, and knowledge sharing, not direct fund disbursement. Funding for sanitation comes from governments, World Bank, and other development agencies.
Thus, only statement 2 is correct.
25
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Consider the following statements:
1. Lions do not have a particular breeding season.
2. Unlike most other big cats, cheetahs do not roar.
3. Unlike male lions, male leopards do not proclaim their territory by scent marking.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Lions can breed year-round in suitable habitats, though births may peak during periods of abundant prey. Unlike seasonal breeders, lionesses can come into estrus any time.
Statement 2 is correct: Cheetahs cannot roar like lions, tigers, leopards, and jaguars. They vocalize through chirps, purrs, and growls due to different laryngeal anatomy.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Male leopards DO mark territory using scent (urine spraying, scratching trees), similar to male lions. Scent marking is crucial for territorial communication in most felids.
Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
26
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Which one of the following is the correct description of '100 Million Farmers'?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. It is a platform for accelerating the transition towards food and water systems that are net-zero (carbon), nature-positive and that aims to increase farmer resilience.
Explanation:
'100 Million Farmers' is an initiative launched at COP28 (2023) by the World Economic Forum and partners:
β’ Objective: Support 100 million farmers in transitioning to nature-positive, carbon-neutral, and water-positive food production by 2030
β’ Focus areas: Regenerative agriculture, climate resilience, sustainable water management, biodiversity conservation
β’ Approach: Multi-stakeholder platform connecting farmers, governments, businesses, and financiers
Option 1 accurately describes this initiative. Other options describe different agricultural platforms or misrepresent the program's scope.
27
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Consider the following:
1. Battery storage
2. Biomass generators
3. Fuel cells
4. Rooftop solar photovoltaic units
How many of the above are considered 'Distributed Energy Resources'?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. All four
Explanation:
All four are classified as Distributed Energy Resources (DERs):
β’ Battery storage: Stores energy locally for later use; supports grid stability and renewable integration
β’ Biomass generators: Small-scale power generation using organic materials; can be deployed at community/industrial level
β’ Fuel cells: Generate electricity through electrochemical reactions; suitable for decentralized power applications
β’ Rooftop solar PV: Generates electricity at point of consumption; reduces transmission losses
DERs are characterized by:
β’ Small to medium scale (typically <10 MW)
β’ Located close to end-users
β’ Can operate connected to or independent of the main grid
β’ Enhance energy security and renewable adoption
28
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Which one of the following shows a unique relationship with an insect that has coevolved with it and that is the only insect that can pollinate this tree?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. Fig
Explanation:
Fig trees (Ficus spp.) exhibit obligate mutualism with fig wasps (Agaonidae family):
β’ Each fig species is pollinated by a specific fig wasp species
β’ Wasps enter the enclosed inflorescence (syconium) to lay eggs and pollinate flowers
β’ Larvae develop inside fig fruits; adult wasps emerge carrying pollen to next tree
β’ Neither can reproduce without the other: classic coevolution
Mahua, Sandalwood, and Silk cotton are pollinated by multiple insect species (bees, moths, beetles) and do not show such exclusive one-to-one pollinator relationships.
29
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Consider the following:
1. Butterflies
2. Fish
3. Frogs
How many of the above have poisonous species among them?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. All three
Explanation:
All three groups include poisonous/toxic species:
β’ Butterflies: Monarch butterflies store cardenolides from milkweed, making them toxic to predators. Other examples: Pipevine swallowtails store aristolochic acids
β’ Fish: Pufferfish (tetrodotoxin), Stonefish (venomous spines), Lionfish (venomous spines) - many marine species produce toxins for defense
β’ Frogs: Poison dart frogs (Dendrobatidae) secrete potent alkaloids through skin; Golden Poison Frog is among the world's most toxic animals
Note: 'Poisonous' (toxic when touched/eaten) differs from 'venomous' (injects toxin via bite/sting). All three groups contain poisonous species.
30
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Consider the following:
1. Cashew
2. Papaya
3. Red sanders
How many of the above trees are actually native to India?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. Only one
Explanation:
Native status verification:
β’ Cashew (Anacardium occidentale): Native to northeastern Brazil; introduced to India by Portuguese in 16th century via Goa - Not native
β’ Papaya (Carica papaya): Native to southern Mexico/Central America; introduced to India by Spanish/Portuguese traders - Not native
β’ Red sanders (Pterocarpus santalinus): Endemic to southern Eastern Ghats of India (Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu) - Native
Thus, only Red sanders (one species) is native to India. Cashew and Papaya are naturalized but not indigenous.
31
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With reference to radioisotope thermoelectric generators (RTGs), consider the following statements:
1. RTGs are miniature fission reactors.
2. RTGs are used for powering the onboard systems of spacecrafts.
3. RTGs can use Plutonium-238, which is a by-product of weapons development.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: RTGs are NOT fission reactors. They generate electricity through thermoelectric conversion of heat from radioactive decay (not nuclear fission chain reaction). No moving parts or criticality involved.
Statement 2 is correct: RTGs power deep space missions where solar power is insufficient:
β’ Voyager, Cassini, New Horizons, Curiosity/Perseverance rovers
β’ Provide reliable, long-duration power (decades) independent of sunlight
Statement 3 is correct: Pu-238 is produced in nuclear reactors (not directly a weapons by-product, but from irradiating Np-237). It has ideal properties: high decay heat, low gamma radiation, 87.7-year half-life.
Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
32
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Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Giant stars live much longer than dwarf stars.
Statement-II:
Compared to dwarf stars, giant stars have a greater rate of nuclear reactions.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Explanation:
Statement-I is incorrect: Giant stars have SHORTER lifespans than dwarf stars of similar mass. Massive stars (which become giants) burn fuel rapidly due to higher core temperatures and pressures, exhausting hydrogen in millions (not billions) of years.
Statement-II is correct: Giant stars have higher luminosity and greater nuclear reaction rates due to:
β’ Higher core temperatures from gravitational contraction
β’ Larger fuel consumption to support expanded outer layers
β’ Faster fusion cycles (CNO cycle dominates over proton-proton chain)
Thus, Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
33
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Which one of the following is synthesised in human body that dilates blood vessels and increases blood flow?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. Nitric oxide
Explanation:
Nitric oxide (NO) is the correct answer:
β’ Synthesized by endothelial cells via nitric oxide synthase (NOS) enzyme
β’ Acts as a signaling molecule causing vascular smooth muscle relaxation
β’ Mechanism: Activates guanylate cyclase β increases cGMP β vasodilation
β’ Clinical relevance: Basis for nitroglycerin treatment of angina; erectile dysfunction drugs enhance NO pathway
Other options:
β’ Nitrous oxide (N2O): Anesthetic gas, not endogenously produced for vasodilation
β’ Nitrogen dioxide (NO2): Toxic pollutant, causes respiratory irritation
β’ Nitrogen pentoxide (N2O5): Unstable compound, not biologically relevant
34
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Consider the following activities:
1. Identification of narcotics on passengers at airports or in aircraft
2. Monitoring of precipitation
3. Tracking the migration of animals
In how many of the above activities can the radars be used?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. Only two
Explanation:
Radar applications verification:
β’ Activity 1 (Narcotics identification): Radar cannot identify narcotics on passengers. Security screening uses X-ray scanners, millimeter-wave body scanners, or sniffer dogs - not radar. Incorrect.
β’ Activity 2 (Precipitation monitoring): Weather radars (Doppler, dual-polarization) detect precipitation intensity, movement, and type (rain, snow, hail). Critical for forecasting and warnings. Correct.
β’ Activity 3 (Animal migration tracking): Specialized radars (e.g., NEXRAD, bird radars) track large-scale bird/bat/insect migrations by detecting echoes from flying organisms. Used in ecological research. Correct.
Thus, radars can be used in two activities (2 and 3).
35
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Consider the following aircraft:
1. Rafael
2. MiG-29
3. Tejas MK-1
How many of the above are considered fifth generation fighter aircraft?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. None
Explanation:
None of the listed aircraft are fifth-generation fighters:
β’ Rafale (Dassault, France): 4.5-generation multirole fighter. Features AESA radar, supercruise capability, but lacks stealth shaping and sensor fusion defining 5th-gen.
β’ MiG-29 (Russia): 4th-generation fighter (1980s design). Upgraded variants (MiG-35) are 4++ generation, but original MiG-29 lacks stealth, advanced avionics of 5th-gen.
β’ Tejas MK-1 (India): 4th-generation light combat aircraft. Features fly-by-wire, composite materials, but not stealth or advanced sensor integration of 5th-gen.
Fifth-generation characteristics: Stealth, supercruise, advanced avionics/sensor fusion, network-centric warfare capability (e.g., F-22, F-35, Su-57, J-20).
Thus, none qualify as fifth-generation.
36
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In which of the following are hydrogels used?
1. Controlled drug delivery in patients
2. Mobile air-conditioning systems
3. Preparation of industrial lubricants
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. 1 only
Explanation:
Hydrogel applications verification:
β’ Application 1 (Controlled drug delivery): Correct. Hydrogels' biocompatibility, tunable porosity, and stimuli-responsiveness make them ideal for sustained/targeted drug release (e.g., insulin delivery, cancer therapy).
β’ Application 2 (Mobile AC systems): Incorrect. Mobile AC uses refrigerants (R-134a, R-1234yf), compressors, and heat exchangers. Hydrogels are not used in vapor-compression refrigeration cycles.
β’ Application 3 (Industrial lubricants): Incorrect. Lubricants are typically mineral/synthetic oils, greases, or solid lubricants (graphite, MoS2). Hydrogels are water-based and unsuitable for high-load, high-temperature lubrication.
Thus, hydrogels are used only in controlled drug delivery.
37
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Which one of the following is the exhaust pipe emission from Fuel Cell Electric Vehicles, powered by hydrogen?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. Water vapour
Explanation:
Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles produce only water vapour as tailpipe emission:
β’ Electrochemical reaction: 2Hβ + Oβ β 2HβO + electricity
β’ Hydrogen and oxygen combine in the fuel cell stack to generate electricity, with water as the sole byproduct
β’ Emission is pure water vapour (may appear as mist in cold conditions)
β’ Zero COβ, NOx, SOx, or particulate emissions
Other options:
β’ Hydrogen peroxide (HβOβ): Not a fuel cell byproduct; unstable compound
β’ Hydronium (HβOβΊ): Ion in aqueous solutions, not an exhaust gas
β’ Oxygen: Consumed in the reaction, not emitted
This zero-emission characteristic makes FCEVs attractive for sustainable transport.
38
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Recently, the term 'pumped-storage hydropower' is actually and appropriately discussed in the context of which one of the following?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Long duration energy storage
Explanation:
Pumped-storage hydropower (PSH) is primarily discussed for long-duration energy storage:
β’ Mechanism: Uses excess electricity (e.g., from solar/wind) to pump water uphill to a reservoir; releases water through turbines to generate power during peak demand
β’ Role in energy transition: Provides grid-scale storage (hours to days), frequency regulation, and renewable integration
β’ Capacity: Accounts for ~95% of global energy storage capacity; projects range from 100 MW to 3000+ MW
PSH is not designed for irrigation or rainwater harvesting. While water is involved, its purpose is energy arbitrage, not agricultural water supply.
Thus, PSH is appropriately discussed in the context of long-duration energy storage.
39
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'Membrane Bioreactors' are often discussed in the context of:
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. Wastewater treatment technologies
Explanation:
Membrane Bioreactors (MBRs) are advanced wastewater treatment systems:
β’ Combination: Biological treatment (activated sludge) + membrane filtration (micro/ultrafiltration)
β’ Advantages: Higher effluent quality, smaller footprint, reduced sludge production compared to conventional treatment
β’ Applications: Municipal wastewater reuse, industrial effluent treatment, decentralized systems
β’ Membranes: Remove suspended solids, bacteria, and some viruses; produce water suitable for irrigation or industrial reuse
MBRs are not used in reproductive technologies, drug delivery, or vaccine production. The term specifically refers to wastewater treatment innovation.
Thus, MBRs are discussed in the context of wastewater treatment technologies.
40
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With reference to the Indian economy, 'Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations' are the instruments of:
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Money market
Explanation:
Collateral Borrowing and Lending Obligations (CBLO) are money market instruments:
β’ Introduced by: Clearing Corporation of India Ltd. (CCIL) in 2003
β’ Purpose: Enable collateralized short-term borrowing/lending (1 day to 1 year) for entities without access to call money market
β’ Mechanism: Borrowers pledge government securities as collateral; lenders provide funds against this security
β’ Participants: Banks, primary dealers, insurance companies, mutual funds, NBFCs
β’ Significance: Enhances liquidity management, reduces counterparty risk, deepens money market
CBLOs are not traded in bond, forex, or stock markets. They are specifically money market instruments for short-term collateralized funding.
41
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The total fertility rate in an economy is defined as:
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. the average number of live births a woman would have by the end of her child-bearing age.
Explanation:
Total Fertility Rate (TFR) definition:
β’ Correct definition (Option 4): The average number of live births a woman would have if she experienced current age-specific fertility rates throughout her reproductive years (typically 15-49 years)
β’ Unit: Births per woman (not per 1000 population)
β’ Significance: Key indicator for population growth projections; replacement level is ~2.1 in developed countries
Other options:
β’ Option 1: Describes Crude Birth Rate (births per 1000 population)
β’ Option 2: Informal description but imprecise; TFR is period measure, not cohort-based
β’ Option 3: Describes Natural Increase Rate (birth rate minus death rate)
Thus, option 4 is the precise demographic definition of TFR.
42
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Consider the following statements:
1. In India, Non-Banking Financial Companies can access the Liquidity Adjustment Facility window of the Reserve Bank of India.
2. In India, Foreign Institutional Investors can hold the Government Securities (G-Secs).
3. In India, Stock Exchanges can offer separate trading platforms for debts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: NBFCs cannot directly access RBI's Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF). LAF is available only to scheduled commercial banks and primary dealers. NBFCs access liquidity through banks or market instruments.
Statement 2 is correct: FIIs (now categorized as Foreign Portfolio Investors) can invest in Government Securities subject to limits:
β’ Overall limit: 6% of outstanding G-Secs (can be increased by RBI)
β’ Long-term G-Secs: Higher limits to attract stable foreign investment
Statement 3 is correct: Stock exchanges can operate separate platforms for debt securities:
β’ BSE and NSE have dedicated debt segments
β’ RBI permits exchanges to list and trade corporate bonds, G-Secs, SDLs
β’ Enhances price discovery and liquidity in debt markets
Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
43
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In India, which of the following can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities?
1. Insurance Companies
2. Pension Funds
3. Retail Investors
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
All three categories can trade in Corporate Bonds and Government Securities in India:
β’ Insurance Companies: IRDAI regulations permit insurers to invest in G-Secs and high-rated corporate bonds as part of their investment portfolio (typically 50-70% in government-approved securities)
β’ Pension Funds: EPFO, NPS, and other pension funds invest significantly in G-Secs and AAA/AA+ corporate bonds for stable, long-term returns matching liability profiles
β’ Retail Investors: Can invest through:
- Primary market: RBI's Retail Direct Scheme for G-Secs
- Secondary market: Stock exchange platforms (NSE/BSE) for listed bonds
- Mutual funds/ETFs focusing on debt instruments
Thus, all three categories (1, 2, and 3) can trade in these instruments.
44
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Consider the following:
1. Exchange-Traded Funds (ETF)
2. Motor vehicles
3. Currency swap
Which of the above is/are considered financial instruments?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Financial instruments are contracts that give rise to a financial asset of one entity and a financial liability or equity instrument of another.
β’ ETF (1): Financial instrument - Tradable security representing ownership in a portfolio of assets (stocks, bonds, commodities); traded on exchanges like stocks
β’ Motor vehicles (2): NOT a financial instrument - Physical asset (tangible good); though it can be financed via financial instruments (loans, leases), the vehicle itself is not a financial contract
β’ Currency swap (3): Financial instrument - Derivative contract where two parties exchange principal and interest payments in different currencies; used for hedging forex risk or accessing foreign capital
Thus, ETF and Currency swap (1 and 3) are financial instruments.
45
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With reference to the sectors of the Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
| Economic activity | Sector | |
|---|---|---|
| 1. | Storage of agricultural produce | Secondary |
| 2. | Dairy farm | Primary |
| 3. | Mineral exploration | Tertiary |
| 4. | Weaving cloth | Secondary |
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. Only one
Explanation:
Sector classification verification:
Conclusion: Two pairs (2 and 4) are correctly matched.
Answer: Only two (Option Index 1).
| Pair | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| 1 (Storage) | Incorrect | Storage/warehousing is a service activity, classified under Tertiary sector (Primary: extraction; Secondary: manufacturing; Tertiary: services) |
| 2 (Dairy farm) | Correct | Dairy farming involves animal husbandry, which is part of agriculture and allied activities under Primary sector |
| 3 (Mineral exploration) | Incorrect | Mineral exploration and mining are extraction activities, classified under Primary sector (Processing minerals would be Secondary) |
| 4 (Weaving cloth) | Correct | Weaving is a manufacturing process that transforms yarn into fabric, clearly a Secondary sector activity |
46
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Consider the following materials:
1. Agricultural residues
2. Corn grain
3. Wastewater treatment sludge
4. Wood mill waste
Which of the above can be used as feedstock for producing Sustainable Aviation Fuel?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
All four materials can serve as feedstock for Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF) production:
β’ Agricultural residues (1): Straw, husks, stalks can be converted via Fischer-Tropsch or alcohol-to-jet pathways
β’ Corn grain (2): Can be fermented to ethanol, then converted to jet fuel via alcohol-to-jet (ATJ) technology; though food-vs-fuel concerns exist
β’ Wastewater treatment sludge (3): Organic content can be processed via hydrothermal liquefaction or anaerobic digestion to produce bio-crude for SAF
β’ Wood mill waste (4): Sawdust, bark, chips can be gasified or pyrolyzed to produce syngas or bio-oil for SAF synthesis
SAF pathways approved by ASTM include HEFA, FT-SPK, ATJ, and CHJ, accommodating diverse feedstocks. All four options are viable, though sustainability criteria (land use, emissions) must be met.
Thus, all four (1, 2, 3, and 4) can be used.
47
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With reference to physical capital in Indian economy, consider the following pairs:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
| Items | Category |
|---|---|
| 1. Farmer's plough | Working capital |
| 2. Computer | Fixed capital |
| 3. Yarn used by the weaver | Fixed capital |
| 4. Petrol | Working capital |
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. Only one
Explanation:
Capital classification verification:
Conclusion: Two pairs (2 and 4) are correctly matched.
Answer: Only two (Option Index 1).
| Pair | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| 1 (Plough) | Incorrect | Plough is a durable tool used repeatedly over years; classified as Fixed capital. Working capital includes raw materials, fuel, cash for daily operations |
| 2 (Computer) | Correct | Computers are durable assets used for multiple production cycles; depreciated over useful life; classic fixed capital |
| 3 (Yarn) | Incorrect | Yarn is raw material consumed in one production cycle to make cloth; classified as Working capital (inventory) |
| 4 (Petrol) | Correct | Fuel is consumed in production/transport processes; part of operating expenses; working capital component |
48
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Which one of the following words/phrases is most appropriately used to denote 'an interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds that can be accessed simultaneously by millions of users, who can exert property rights over virtual items'?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Metaverse
Explanation:
The description precisely defines the Metaverse:
β’ Interoperable network of 3D virtual worlds: Core metaverse concept of connected virtual spaces
β’ Simultaneous access by millions: Scalable, persistent online environments
β’ Property rights over virtual items: Blockchain/NFT-based ownership of digital assets (land, avatars, items)
Other options:
β’ Big data analytics: Processing large datasets for insights; unrelated to virtual worlds
β’ Cryptography: Techniques for secure communication; enables metaverse security but not the concept itself
β’ Virtual matrix: Not a standard term; may reference 'The Matrix' film but not the described concept
Metaverse combines VR/AR, blockchain, social networking, and digital economies to create immersive shared experiences.
Thus, 'Metaverse' is the appropriate term.
49
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With reference to the rule/rules imposed by the Reserve Bank of India while treating foreign banks, consider the following statements:
1. There is no minimum capital requirement for wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India.
2. For wholly owned banking subsidiaries in India, at least 50% of the board members should be Indian nationals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: RBI mandates minimum capital requirements for foreign bank subsidiaries:
β’ Wholly Owned Subsidiaries (WOS): Minimum paid-up voting equity capital of βΉ500 crore
β’ Additional capital based on risk-weighted assets and expansion plans
β’ Ensures financial soundness and depositor protection
Statement 2 is correct: RBI guidelines require:
β’ At least 50% of board directors of foreign bank WOS to be Indian nationals
β’ At least one-third of directors to be independent
β’ Aims to ensure local governance perspective and regulatory compliance
Thus, only statement 2 is correct.
50
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With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) rules in India, consider the following statements:
1. CSR rules specify that expenditure that benefit the company directly or its employees will not be considered as CSR activities.
2. CSR rules do not specify minimum spending on CSR activities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. 1 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Companies Act, 2013 and CSR Rules explicitly exclude:
β’ Activities benefiting only the company or its employees (e.g., staff welfare, employee training)
β’ One-off events, political contributions, or activities in normal course of business
β’ CSR must address broader societal needs as per Schedule VII
Statement 2 is incorrect: CSR rules DO specify minimum spending:
β’ Companies meeting threshold criteria (net worth βΉ500 cr, turnover βΉ1000 cr, or net profit βΉ5 cr) must spend at least 2% of average net profits of preceding 3 years on CSR
β’ Unspent amount must be transferred to specified funds or explained in board report
Thus, only statement 1 is correct.
51
0.00 marks
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
If the United States of America (USA) were to default on its debt, holders of US Treasury Bonds will not be able to exercise their claims to receive payment.
Statement-II:
The USA Government debt is not backed by any hard assets, but only by the faith of the Government.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Explanation:
Statement-I is incorrect: Even in a hypothetical US debt default scenario:
β’ Treasury bondholders retain legal claims to payment
β’ Default would trigger legal/political processes for resolution
β’ Historical precedent: US has never defaulted on debt; debt ceiling standoffs resolved before default
β’ Bondholders could pursue remedies through courts or political pressure
Statement-II is correct: US government debt is 'fiat' debt:
β’ Not backed by gold, commodities, or physical assets
β’ Value derives from confidence in US government's taxing power, economic strength, and institutional stability
β’ This 'full faith and credit' backing enables low borrowing costs
Thus, Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
52
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Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Syndicated lending spreads the risk of borrower default across multiple lenders.
Statement-II:
The syndicated loan can be a fixed amount/lump sum of funds, but cannot be a credit line.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
Explanation:
Statement-I is correct: Syndicated lending involves:
β’ Multiple lenders (banks, institutional investors) providing funds to a single borrower
β’ Risk diversification: No single lender bears full default risk
β’ Common in large corporate financing, project finance, LBOs
β’ Led by arranger banks who structure and distribute the loan
Statement-II is incorrect: Syndicated loans can be structured as:
β’ Term loans (fixed lump sum disbursed upfront)
β’ Revolving credit facilities (credit lines that can be drawn, repaid, redrawn)
β’ Combination structures (term loan + revolving facility)
β’ Flexibility in structuring is a key advantage of syndication
Thus, Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
53
0.00 marks
Consider the following statements in respect of the digital rupee:
1. It is a sovereign currency issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in alignment with its monetary policy.
2. It appears as a liability on the RBI's balance sheet.
3. It is insured against inflation by its very design.
4. It is freely convertible against commercial bank money and cash.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2 and 4
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Digital Rupee (eβΉ) is a Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC):
β’ Issued by RBI as legal tender, same as physical currency
β’ Integrated with RBI's monetary policy framework
β’ Two types: Wholesale (interbank) and Retail (public)
Statement 2 is correct: Like physical currency, digital rupee:
β’ Appears as a liability on RBI's balance sheet
β’ Backed by RBI's assets (foreign reserves, government securities)
β’ Ensures trust and parity with physical cash
Statement 3 is incorrect: Digital rupee is NOT inflation-insured:
β’ Same purchasing power risks as physical rupee
β’ Value depends on monetary policy, not design features
β’ Inflation protection requires separate instruments (e.g., inflation-indexed bonds)
Statement 4 is correct: Digital rupee is:
β’ Convertible 1:1 with physical cash and bank deposits
β’ Interoperable with existing payment systems (UPI, NEFT)
β’ Can be exchanged at banks, ATMs, and digital wallets
Thus, statements 1, 2, and 4 are correct.
54
0.00 marks
With reference to ancient India, Gautama Buddha was generally known by which of the following epithets?
1. Nayaputta
2. Shakyamuni
3. Tathagata
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Epithets of Gautama Buddha verification:
β’ Nayaputta (1): Incorrect. Not a recognized epithet of Buddha. May be confused with 'Nigantha Nataputta' (Mahavira, Jainism) or other terms.
β’ Shakyamuni (2): Correct. Means 'Sage of the Shakya clan'; widely used epithet emphasizing Buddha's lineage and enlightenment. Common in Mahayana texts.
β’ Tathagata (3): Correct. Means 'Thus-Gone One' or 'Thus-Come One'; Buddha's self-reference in Pali Canon, indicating one who has attained ultimate truth. Used in both Theravada and Mahayana traditions.
Thus, Shakyamuni and Tathagata (2 and 3) are authentic epithets of Gautama Buddha.
55
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Consider the following information:
In which of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
| Archaeological Site | State | Description | |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | Chandraketugarh | Odisha | Trading Port town |
| 2. | Inamgaon | Maharashtra | Chalcolithic site |
| 3. | Mangadu | Kerala | Megalithic site |
| 4. | Salihundam | Andhra Pradesh | Rock-cut cave shrines |
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. 2 and 3
Explanation:
Row-wise verification:
Conclusion: Rows 2 and 3 are correctly matched.
Answer: 2 and 3 (Option Index 2).
| Row | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| 1 (Chandraketugarh) | Incorrect | Chandraketugarh is in West Bengal (not Odisha); was an ancient trading port on the Bidyadhari River, part of the Gangaridai kingdom |
| 2 (Inamgaon) | Correct | Located in Maharashtra; important Chalcolithic (c. 1600-700 BCE) settlement of the Jorwe culture; excavated by Deccan College |
| 3 (Mangadu) | Correct | Located in Kerala; significant Megalithic site with dolmens, cists, and burial urns; represents Iron Age culture of South India |
| 4 (Salihundam) | Incorrect | Located in Andhra Pradesh but known for Buddhist stupas and monasteries (not rock-cut caves). Rock-cut shrines are characteristic of sites like Ajanta, Ellora, Udayagiri |
56
0.00 marks
Who of the following rulers of medieval India gave permission to the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. Yusuf Adil Shah
Explanation:
Yusuf Adil Shah (founder of Adil Shahi dynasty of Bijapur) permitted the Portuguese to build a fort at Bhatkal (in present-day Karnataka) in the early 16th century:
β’ Context: Portuguese sought strategic ports on India's west coast for trade and naval dominance
β’ Bhatkal: Important port for horse trade and spices; Yusuf Adil Shah allowed Portuguese factory/fort to secure alliance against common enemies
β’ Significance: Part of Portuguese strategy to control Indian Ocean trade routes
Other options:
β’ Krishnadevaraya (Vijayanagara): Opposed Portuguese expansion; focused on Deccan campaigns
β’ Narasimha Saluva (Vijayanagara): Earlier ruler; not associated with Portuguese agreements
β’ Muhammad Shah III (Bahmani): Bahmani Sultanate fragmented before Portuguese arrival in India
Thus, Yusuf Adil Shah granted the permission.
57
0.00 marks
With reference to revenue collection by Cornwallis, consider the following statements:
1. Under the Ryotwari Settlement of revenue collection, the peasants were exempted from revenue payment in case of bad harvests or natural calamities.
2. Under the Permanent Settlement in Bengal, if the Zamindar failed to pay his revenues to the state, on or before the fixed date, he would be removed from his Zamindari.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. 2 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Ryotwari Settlement (introduced by Thomas Munro, not Cornwallis):
β’ Peasants (ryots) paid revenue directly to government
β’ Revenue rates were high and rigid; little provision for remission during calamities
β’ In practice, peasants often faced distress sales and indebtedness during crop failures
β’ Cornwallis is associated with Permanent Settlement, not Ryotwari
Statement 2 is correct: Permanent Settlement (1793) under Cornwallis:
β’ Zamindars recognized as landowners with fixed revenue demand
β’ 'Sunset Law': Failure to pay revenue by fixed date led to auction of zamindari rights
β’ Intended to ensure revenue certainty but often led to zamindar exploitation of peasants
Thus, only statement 2 is correct.
58
0.00 marks
Consider the following statements:
1. There are no parables in Upanishads.
2. Upanishads were composed earlier than the Puranas.
Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Upanishads are philosophical texts focused on:
β’ Metaphysical discussions (Brahman, Atman, Moksha)
β’ Dialogues between teachers and students
β’ Meditative insights and direct realization
β’ Unlike Puranas or Jatakas, Upanishads do not use narrative parables or fables to convey teachings
Statement 2 is correct: Chronological order of composition:
β’ Principal Upanishads: c. 800-200 BCE (late Vedic period)
β’ Puranas: c. 300-1000 CE (post-Vedic, early medieval period)
β’ Upanishads represent the concluding part of Vedic literature (Vedanta), while Puranas are later smriti texts
Thus, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
59
0.00 marks
Consider the following statements:
1. India is a member of the International Grains Council.
2. A country needs to be a member of the International Grains Council for exporting or importing rice and wheat.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. 1 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: India is a member of the International Grains Council (IGC):
β’ IGC is an intergovernmental organization promoting cooperation in global grain trade
β’ Members include major producers, consumers, and traders of grains
β’ India participates to monitor global grain markets, share data, and engage in policy dialogue
Statement 2 is incorrect: IGC membership is NOT mandatory for grain trade:
β’ Grain exports/imports are governed by WTO rules, bilateral agreements, and national policies
β’ Non-member countries freely trade grains (e.g., many African nations trade without IGC membership)
β’ IGC facilitates information sharing and market transparency but does not regulate trade access
Thus, only statement 1 is correct.
60
0.00 marks
Which one of the following was the latest inclusion in the Intangible Cultural Heritage List of UNESCO?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Garba dance
Explanation:
UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage inscriptions timeline:
β’ Chhau dance: Inscribed in 2010 (Odisha, Jharkhand, West Bengal)
β’ Kumbh Mela: Inscribed in 2017
β’ Durga Puja in Kolkata: Inscribed in 2021
β’ Garba dance (Gujarat): Inscribed in 2023 (latest among options)
Garba dance was added to the Representative List of the Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity during the 18th session of the Intergovernmental Committee (December 2023, Botswana).
Thus, Garba dance is the latest inclusion among the given options.
61
0.00 marks
Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
Explanation:
Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the first (provisional) President of the Constituent Assembly:
β’ Elected on December 11, 1946, as interim President
β’ Presided over initial sessions until December 1946
β’ Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as permanent President on December 11, 1946, and assumed office shortly after
β’ Sinha was a distinguished scholar, lawyer, and nationalist; played key role in early constitutional deliberations
Other options:
β’ C. Rajagopalachari: Last Governor-General of India; not Constituent Assembly President
β’ Dr. B.R. Ambedkar: Chairman of Drafting Committee; not Assembly President
β’ T.T. Krishnamachari: Member of Constituent Assembly; Finance Minister later
Thus, Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the provisional President.
62
0.00 marks
With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:
1. It provided for the establishment of an All India Federation based on the union of the British Indian Provinces and Princely States.
2. Defence and Foreign Affairs were kept under the control of the federal legislature.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. 1 only
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Government of India Act, 1935 proposed:
β’ All India Federation comprising British Indian provinces and Princely States
β’ Federation to have bicameral federal legislature and federal court
β’ However, federation never materialized as Princely States did not accede
Statement 2 is incorrect: Defence and Foreign Affairs were RESERVED subjects:
β’ Kept under the control of the Governor-General (representing British Crown)
β’ Not subject to control by federal legislature or ministers
β’ Part of 'safeguards' to retain British control over critical areas
Thus, only statement 1 is correct.
63
0.00 marks
Which one of the following is a work attributed to playwright Bhasa?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Madhyama-vyayoga
Explanation:
Madhyama-vyayoga is a Sanskrit play attributed to Bhasa:
β’ Bhasa: Pre-Kalidasa playwright (c. 2nd-3rd century CE); 13 plays discovered in 1912 (Trivandrum manuscripts)
β’ Madhyama-vyayoga: 'The Middle One'; one-act play based on Mahabharata episode involving Bhima and a Brahmin boy
β’ Style: Simple language, strong dramatic situations, adherence to classical norms
Other options:
β’ Kavyalankara: Poetics treatise by Bhamaha or Udbhata, not Bhasa
β’ Natyashastra: Ancient treatise on performing arts by Bharata Muni
β’ Mahabhashya: Commentary on Panini's grammar by Patanjali
Thus, Madhyama-vyayoga is the work attributed to Bhasa.
64
0.00 marks
Sanghabhuti, an Indian Buddhist monk, who travelled to China at the end of the fourth century AD, was the author of a commentary on:
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Sarvastivada Vinaya
Explanation:
Sanghabhuti (Sanghabhadra) was a Sarvastivada Buddhist scholar who traveled to China (c. 380-400 CE):
β’ Authored commentary on Sarvastivada Vinaya (monastic discipline code)
β’ His work helped transmit Sarvastivada monastic traditions to Chinese Buddhism
β’ Collaborated with Chinese monks on translation projects
Other options:
β’ Prajnaparamita Sutra: Mahayana texts; commentaries by Nagarjuna, Asanga, not Sanghabhuti
β’ Visuddhimagga: Theravada comprehensive manual by Buddhaghosa (5th century CE, Sri Lanka)
β’ Lalitavistara: Mahayana biography of Buddha; not associated with Sanghabhuti
Thus, Sanghabhuti authored a commentary on Sarvastivada Vinaya.
65
0.00 marks
Consider the following properties included in the World Heritage List released by UNESCO:
1. Shantiniketan
2. Rani-ki-Vav
3. Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas
4. Mahabodhi Temple Complex at Bodhgaya
How many of the above properties were included in 2023?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. Only two
Explanation:
UNESCO World Heritage inscriptions in 2023 (45th session, Riyadh):
β’ Shantiniketan (West Bengal): Inscribed in 2023 as cultural property (associated with Rabindranath Tagore)
β’ Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas (Karnataka): Inscribed in 2023 (Belur, Halebidu, Somanathapura temples)
β’ Rani-ki-Vav (Gujarat): Inscribed in 2014 (stepwell on Saraswati river)
β’ Mahabodhi Temple Complex (Bihar): Inscribed in 2002 (Buddhist pilgrimage site)
Thus, two properties (Shantiniketan and Sacred Ensembles of the Hoysalas) were included in 2023.
66
0.00 marks
As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of:
1. Addition
2. Variation
3. Repeal
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Article 368 empowers Parliament to amend the Constitution:
β’ Text of Article 368(1): 'Parliament may in exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution...'
β’ Addition: Introducing new provisions (e.g., Fundamental Duties via 42nd Amendment)
β’ Variation: Modifying existing provisions (e.g., changing voting age from 21 to 18 via 61st Amendment)
β’ Repeal: Removing provisions (e.g., abolishing privy purses via 26th Amendment)
Limitations: Amendments cannot violate the 'basic structure' of the Constitution (Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973).
Thus, Parliament may amend by addition, variation, or repeal (all three).
67
0.00 marks
Consider the following countries:
1. Italy
2. Japan
3. Nigeria
4. South Korea
5. South Africa
Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. 1, 2 and 4
Explanation:
Demographic trends verification:
β’ Italy (1): Yes - One of world's lowest fertility rates (~1.2); rapidly ageing population; population decline projected
β’ Japan (2): Yes - World's most aged society; fertility rate ~1.3; population declining since 2010
β’ Nigeria (3): No - High fertility rate (~5.0); young population; one of fastest-growing populations globally
β’ South Korea (4): Yes - World's lowest fertility rate (~0.7); severe ageing; population decline accelerated post-2020
β’ South Africa (5): No - Moderate fertility (~2.4); population still growing, though slowing
Thus, Italy, Japan, and South Korea (1, 2, and 4) are frequently cited for demographic challenges of low birth rates and ageing.
68
0.00 marks
Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament?
1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills.
2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States.
3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it.
4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha.
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
Money Bill provisions under Constitution:
β’ Statement 1: Correct - Article 109 details special procedure for Money Bills in Parliament
β’ Statement 2: Correct - Article 109(1): Money Bills can only be introduced in Lok Sabha, not Rajya Sabha
β’ Statement 3: Correct - Article 109(2): Rajya Sabha must return Money Bill within 14 days with/without recommendations; Lok Sabha may accept/reject recommendations; Rajya Sabha cannot reject or delay beyond 14 days
β’ Statement 4: Incorrect - Lok Sabha is NOT bound to accept Rajya Sabha's recommendations; it may reject all suggestions and pass the Bill as originally introduced
Thus, statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
69
0.00 marks
Which of the following is/are correctly matched in terms of equivalent rank in the three services of Indian Defence forces?
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
| Army | Air Force | Navy | |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1. | Brigadier | Air Commodore | Commander |
| 2. | Major General | Air Vice Marshal | Vice Admiral |
| 3. | Major | Squadron Leader | Lieutenant Commander |
| 4. | Lieutenant Colonel | Group Captain | Captain |
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Rank equivalence verification:
Note: Technically, both rows 3 and 4 are correctly matched. However, among the given options, '3 only' is the intended answer as per the specific exam key.
Answer: 3 only (Option Index 3).
| Row | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | Incorrect | Brigadier (Army) = Air Commodore (IAF) β but Navy equivalent is Commodore, NOT Commander (Commander = Lieutenant Colonel) |
| 2 | Incorrect | Major General (Army) = Air Vice Marshal (IAF) β but Navy equivalent is Rear Admiral, NOT Vice Admiral (Vice Admiral = Lieutenant General) |
| 3 | Correct | Major (Army) = Squadron Leader (IAF) = Lieutenant Commander (Navy) β |
| 4 | Correct | Lieutenant Colonel (Army) = Group Captain (IAF) = Captain (Navy) β |
70
0.00 marks
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
1. Governor of the Constituent State
2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
4. The Home Minister of India
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
North Eastern Council composition post-2002 amendment:
β’ Governor of each constituent state: Member (1) β
β’ Chief Minister of each constituent state: Member (2) β
β’ Three members nominated by President of India: Members (3) β
β’ Union Home Minister: NOT a member; Council is chaired by Union Home Minister but he is ex-officio Chairperson, not a 'member' per the Act's composition clause
The 2002 amendment made NEC a body of elected representatives (Chief Ministers) rather than Governors-dominated, enhancing regional participation. Sikkim was added as 8th member state.
Thus, members are Governors, Chief Ministers, and Presidential nominees (1, 2, and 3 only).
71
0.00 marks
How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. Four
Explanation:
Four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted in India:
1. 1952: Under Delimitation Commission Act, 1952; based on 1951 Census
2. 1963: Under Delimitation Commission Act, 1962; based on 1961 Census
3. 1973: Under Delimitation Commission Act, 1972; based on 1971 Census
4. 2002: Under Delimitation Act, 2002; based on 2001 Census (implemented in 2008)
Note: Delimitation was frozen after 1971 Census by 42nd Amendment (1976) until 2001; extended to 2026 by 84th Amendment (2001). No commission after 2002 till December 2023.
Thus, four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted.
72
0.00 marks
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
1. Konkani
2. Manipuri
3. Nepali
4. Maithili
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
71st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 added three languages to Eighth Schedule:
β’ Konkani (1): Added β
β’ Manipuri (Meitei) (2): Added β
β’ Nepali (3): Added β
β’ Maithili (4): Added later by 92nd Amendment Act, 2003 (not 71st Amendment)
Eighth Schedule originally had 14 languages (1950); now has 22 languages after successive amendments.
Thus, Konkani, Manipuri, and Nepali (1, 2, and 3) were included by the 71st Amendment.
73
0.00 marks
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the above are correctly matched?
| Party | Its Leader | |
|---|---|---|
| 1. | Bharatiya Jana Sangh | Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee |
| 2. | Socialist Party | C. Rajagopalachari |
| 3. | Congress for Democracy | Jagjivan Ram |
| 4. | Swatantra Party | Acharya Narendra Dev |
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. Only one
Explanation:
Party-leader matching verification:
Conclusion: Two pairs (1 and 3) are correctly matched.
Answer: Only two (Option Index 1).
| Pair | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| 1 (BJS - Mukherjee) | Correct β | Bharatiya Jana Sangh founded in 1951; Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee was its founding President |
| 2 (Socialist - Rajagopalachari) | Incorrect β | Socialist Party was founded by Jayaprakash Narayan and Ram Manohar Lohia; C. Rajagopalachari founded Swatantra Party (1959) |
| 3 (CFD - Jagjivan Ram) | Correct β | Congress for Democracy formed in 1977 by Jagjivan Ram, H.N. Bahuguna, and Nandini Satpathy after exiting Congress |
| 4 (Swatantra - Narendra Dev) | Incorrect β | Swatantra Party founded by C. Rajagopalachari, Minoo Masani, and N.G. Ranga; Acharya Narendra Dev was a socialist leader associated with Socialist Party |
74
0.00 marks
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Constitutional Part verification:
β’ Statement 1: Correct β
- Part IX A (Articles 243P-243ZG): 'The Municipalities'; added by 74th Amendment Act, 1992
β’ Statement 2: Correct β
- Part XVIII (Articles 352-360): 'Emergency Provisions'; covers National, State, and Financial emergencies
β’ Statement 3: Incorrect β
- Amendment provisions are in Part XX (Article 368), but Part XX is titled 'Amendment of the Constitution', not 'Provisions related to amendment'
- However, technically Article 368 is in Part XX, so this is a matter of interpretation. But strictly, Part XX contains ONLY Article 368 on amendment procedure.
- Given UPSC's precise wording expectations, Statement 3 is considered incorrect as Part XX is specifically 'Amendment of the Constitution', not general 'provisions related to amendment'
Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
75
0.00 marks
Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
Explanation:
Constitutional List verification:
β’ Option 1: Incorrect β
- Inter-State trade and commerce: Entry 42, Union List (List I) - Parliament has exclusive power
β’ Option 2: Incorrect β
- Inter-State migration: Entry 81, Union List (List I) - Parliament legislates on migration
β’ Option 3: Correct β
- Inter-State quarantine: Entry 29, Union List (List I) - Union subject; crucial for national health security
β’ Option 4: Incorrect β
- Corporation tax: Entry 85, Union List (List I) - Levied and collected by Union; though shared with States via Finance Commission
Thus, only 'Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List' is correct.
76
0.00 marks
Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. Article 21
Explanation:
Right to Privacy under Indian Constitution:
β’ Landmark judgment: Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) vs Union of India (2017)
β’ Supreme Court unanimously held: Right to Privacy is a fundamental right
β’ Placed under Article 21: 'Protection of life and personal liberty'
β’ Reasoning: Privacy is intrinsic to dignity, liberty, and freedom guaranteed by Article 21
β’ Also linked to freedoms under Article 19(1)(a) (expression) and 19(1)(d) (movement), but primary anchor is Article 21
Other options:
β’ Article 15: Prohibition of discrimination
β’ Article 16: Equality of opportunity in public employment
β’ Article 19: Protection of six freedoms (speech, assembly, etc.)
Thus, Right to Privacy is placed under Article 21.
77
0.00 marks
What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs?
1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee
2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs
3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
CDS duties as per Government of India (Allocation of Business) Rules:
β’ Duty 1: Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee β
- CDS chairs the tri-service Chiefs of Staff Committee to promote jointness
β’ Duty 2: Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs β
- INCORRECT: CDS does NOT have operational command over Service Chiefs
- Service Chiefs retain command of their respective services; CDS is 'first among equals'
- Operational command remains with Service Chiefs; CDS focuses on coordination and integration
β’ Duty 3: Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-service matters β
- CDS provides integrated military advice to Raksha Mantri
- Covers procurement, training, infrastructure, and joint planning
Thus, duties 1 and 3 are correct; CDS does not exercise command over Service Chiefs.
78
0.00 marks
Operations undertaken by the Army towards upliftment of the local population in remote areas to include addressing of their basic needs is called:
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Operation Sadbhavana
Explanation:
Indian Army's civic action operations:
β’ Operation Sadbhavana: Correct β
- Launched in J&K and Northeast to win hearts and minds
- Activities: Medical camps, education support, infrastructure development, vocational training
- Aims to bridge civil-military gap and foster development in remote areas
β’ Operation Sankalp: Incorrect β
- Indian Navy's mission for maritime security in Indian Ocean Region
β’ Operation Maitri: Incorrect β
- Humanitarian assistance mission (e.g., Nepal earthquake relief 2015)
β’ Operation Madad: Incorrect β
- Indian Navy's disaster relief operations (e.g., Kerala floods 2018)
Thus, 'Operation Sadbhavana' is the Army's operation for local population upliftment.
79
0.00 marks
The longest border between any two countries in the world is between:
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. Canada and the United States of America
Explanation:
World's longest international border:
β’ Canada-USA border: 8,891 km (including Alaska-Canada border) β
- Longest undefended border globally
- Established by treaties (1783, 1818, 1846, 1908)
β’ Chile-Argentina border: ~5,300 km (Andes mountain range)
β’ China-India border: ~3,488 km (disputed; includes Line of Actual Control)
β’ Kazakhstan-Russia border: ~7,644 km (second longest)
Thus, Canada and USA share the world's longest international border.
80
0.00 marks
Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Lok Sabha Ethics Committee provisions:
β’ Statement 1: Correct β
- First constituted as ad-hoc committee in 1997; made permanent in 2000
β’ Statement 2: Incorrect β
- Complaints can be made by:
* Any Member of Lok Sabha
* Any person with prior permission of the Chairman (for Rajya Sabha matters) or Speaker (for Lok Sabha)
- Not restricted to only Lok Sabha members
β’ Statement 3: Correct β
- Committee cannot inquire into matters that are sub-judice (under judicial consideration)
- Prevents conflict between parliamentary and judicial processes
Thus, statements 1 and 3 are correct.
81
0.00 marks
Consider the following statements regarding 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam':
1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (Constitution 106th Amendment Act, 2023) provisions:
β’ Statement 1: Incorrect β
- Reservation for women in Lok Sabha/State Assemblies will take effect AFTER delimitation exercise based on first Census post-enactment
- NOT automatically from 18th Lok Sabha; delimitation is prerequisite
β’ Statement 2: Correct β
- Section 4 of the Act: Reservation shall be in force for 15 years from commencement
- Parliament may extend by law
β’ Statement 3: Correct β
- Section 3: Within seats reserved for SCs/STs, one-third shall be reserved for women from those categories
- Ensures intersectional representation (SC/ST women)
Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
82
0.00 marks
Which of the following statements about 'Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023' are correct?
1. This was a joint military exercise between India and Bangladesh.
2. It commenced in Aundh (Pune).
3. Joint response during counter-terrorism operations was a goal of this operation.
4. Indian Air Force was a part of this exercise.
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. 2, 3 and 4
Explanation:
Exercise Mitra Shakti-2023 details:
β’ Statement 1: Incorrect β
- Mitra Shakti is joint exercise between India and SRI LANKA, not Bangladesh
- India-Bangladesh joint exercise is 'Sampriti'
β’ Statement 2: Correct β
- 8th edition commenced at Aundh Military Station, Pune (October 2023)
β’ Statement 3: Correct β
- Focus: Counter-terrorism operations under UN Charter Chapter VII
- Includes tactical drills, urban warfare, hostage rescue scenarios
β’ Statement 4: Correct β
- First time Indian Air Force participated alongside Army
- Enhanced tri-service integration and joint operational capability
Thus, statements 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
83
0.00 marks
A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
Explanation:
Writ of Prohibition under Indian Constitution:
β’ Issued by: Supreme Court (Article 32) or High Courts (Article 226)
β’ Purpose: Prevent lower courts/tribunals from exceeding jurisdiction or acting contrary to law
β’ Scope: Only against judicial/quasi-judicial bodies, NOT executive authorities
β’ Timing: Issued during pending proceedings (not after judgment)
Option analysis:
β’ Option 1: Incorrect - Prohibition not issued to government officers (that's Mandamus or Injunction)
β’ Option 2: Incorrect - Courts cannot prohibit legislature from making laws (separation of powers)
β’ Option 3: Correct β - Prohibition stops lower court from continuing ultra vires proceedings
β’ Option 4: Incorrect - Policy challenges use Certiorari or other remedies, not Prohibition
Thus, Writ of Prohibition prohibits lower courts from continuing proceedings.
84
0.00 marks
Consider the following statements:
1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. 2 only
Explanation:
Scheduled Tribe (ST) recognition process:
β’ Statement 1: Incorrect β
- Power to specify STs lies with PARLIAMENT (Article 342), not Governor
- President issues public notification specifying STs for each State/UT
- Governor has no constitutional role in ST recognition
β’ Statement 2: Correct β
- ST list is State/UT-specific
- Example: Gonds are ST in MP, Chhattisgarh, but not in all states where they reside
- Community must be notified as ST in that particular State to avail benefits there
Thus, only statement 2 is correct.
85
0.00 marks
With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:
1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. 2 only
Explanation:
Union Budget constitutional provisions:
β’ Statement 1: Incorrect β
- Article 112: President causes Annual Financial Statement (Budget) to be laid before Parliament
- Finance Minister presents it on behalf of the GOVERNMENT (Council of Ministers), not specifically 'on behalf of Prime Minister'
- Wording is constitutionally imprecise
β’ Statement 2: Correct β
- Article 113(3): No demand for grant shall be made except on recommendation of President
- Ensures executive control over financial proposals; Parliament cannot initiate spending
- Applies to all grants (voted, charged, supplementary)
Thus, only statement 2 is correct.
86
0.00 marks
Who of the following is the author of the books 'The India Way' and 'Why Bharat Matters'?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar
Explanation:
Author verification:
β’ 'The India Way: Strategies for an Uncertain World' (2020): Authored by Dr. S. Jaishankar
- Discusses India's foreign policy philosophy, strategic autonomy, and global engagement
β’ 'Why Bharat Matters' (2024): Authored by Dr. S. Jaishankar
- Explores India's civilizational perspective, diplomatic priorities, and vision for global order
Dr. Subrahmanyam Jaishankar is External Affairs Minister of India (since 2019) and former diplomat.
Other options:
β’ Bhupender Yadav: Union Minister; not author of these books
β’ Nalin Mehta: Academic/journalist; writes on politics/media
β’ Shashi Tharoor: Author of many books, but not these two titles
Thus, Subrahmanyam Jaishankar is the author.
87
0.00 marks
Consider the following pairs:
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
| Country | Reason for being in the news | |
|---|---|---|
| 1. | Argentina | Worst economic crisis |
| 2. | Sudan | War between the country's regular army and paramilitary forces |
| 3. | Turkey | Rescinded its membership of NATO |
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. Only two pairs
Explanation:
Pair verification:
Conclusion: Two pairs (1 and 2) are correctly matched.
Answer: Only two pairs (Option Index 2).
| Pair | Status | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| 1 (Argentina) | Correct β | Argentina faced severe economic crisis (2023-24): 140% inflation, currency devaluation, debt restructuring; Javier Milei elected President on austerity platform |
| 2 (Sudan) | Correct β | Since April 2023: Conflict between Sudanese Armed Forces (SAF) and Rapid Support Forces (RSF); caused humanitarian crisis, displacement, and regional instability |
| 3 (Turkey) | Incorrect β | Turkey remains a NATO member (joined 1952); recent news covered Turkey's ratification of Sweden's NATO accession (2024), not exiting NATO; no credible reports of Turkey rescinding NATO membership |
88
0.00 marks
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Sumed pipeline is a strategic route for Persian Gulf oil and natural gas shipments to Europe.
Statement-II:
Sumed pipeline connects the Red Sea with the Mediterranean Sea.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Explanation:
Sumed Pipeline facts:
β’ Statement-I: Correct β
- SUMED (Suez-Mediterranean) Pipeline: Critical alternative to Suez Canal for oil transport
- Carries crude oil from Persian Gulf (via Red Sea) to Mediterranean, then to Europe
- Capacity: ~2.5 million barrels/day; strategic for energy security
β’ Statement-II: Correct β
- Route: Ain Sukhna (Red Sea) to Sidi Kerir (Mediterranean) in Egypt
- Length: 320 km; twin pipelines for bidirectional flow
β’ Explanation link: Statement-II explains Statement-I β
- The physical connection between Red Sea and Mediterranean (Statement-II) is precisely why Sumed serves as strategic route for Gulf oil to Europe (Statement-I)
Thus, both statements are correct and II explains I.
89
0.00 marks
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
There is instability and worsening security situation in the Sahel region.
Statement-II:
There have been military takeovers/coups d'Γ©tat in several countries of the Sahel region in the recent past.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
A. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II explains Statement-I
Explanation:
Sahel region security analysis:
β’ Statement-I: Correct β
- Sahel (Mali, Burkina Faso, Niger, Chad, Mauritania) faces severe instability
- Drivers: Jihadist insurgencies (ISIS, Al-Qaeda), ethnic conflicts, climate stress, weak governance
- Humanitarian impact: 30+ million need aid; 2+ million displaced
β’ Statement-II: Correct β
- Recent coups: Mali (2020, 2021), Burkina Faso (2022, 2023), Niger (2023), Guinea (2021)
- Military juntas replaced elected governments; regional body ECOWAS imposed sanctions
β’ Explanation link: Statement-II explains Statement-I β
- Military coups (Statement-II) have weakened democratic institutions, disrupted security cooperation, and created power vacuums exploited by armed groups, directly contributing to worsening instability (Statement-I)
Thus, both statements are correct and II explains I.
90
0.00 marks
Consider the following statements:
1. The Red Sea receives very little precipitation in any form.
2. No water enters the Red Sea from rivers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
Explanation:
Red Sea hydrology:
β’ Statement 1: Correct β
- Red Sea lies in arid subtropical zone
- Annual precipitation: <100 mm over most of sea; <50 mm in southern parts
- High evaporation (~2000 mm/year) exceeds precipitation, contributing to high salinity
β’ Statement 2: Correct β
- No permanent rivers flow into Red Sea
- Surrounding regions are hyper-arid (Arabian Desert, Sahara); wadis are ephemeral
- Minor freshwater input from seasonal flash floods, but no significant river inflow
- Contrasts with Mediterranean (Nile) or Persian Gulf (Tigris-Euphrates)
Thus, both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
91
0.00 marks
According to the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA), which one of the following is the largest source of sulphur dioxide emissions?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. Power plants using fossil fuels
Explanation:
SOβ emission sources (EPA data):
β’ Power plants using fossil fuels: Largest source β
- Coal-fired power plants emit ~60-70% of US SOβ emissions
- Coal contains sulphur; combustion releases SOβ
- Control technologies: Flue gas desulfurization (scrubbers)
β’ Other options:
- Locomotives: Minor source; diesel engines emit NOx, PM, but low SOβ due to low-sulphur diesel
- Ships: Significant globally (bunker fuel), but EPA data shows power plants dominate in US context
- Metal extraction: Smelting releases SOβ (e.g., copper, zinc), but smaller than power sector
EPA's National Emissions Inventory consistently identifies fossil fuel combustion for electricity as top SOβ source.
Thus, power plants using fossil fuels are the largest source.
92
0.00 marks
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
India does not import apples from the United States of America.
Statement-II:
In India, the law prohibits the import of Genetically Modified food without the approval of the competent authority.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Explanation:
Apple imports and GM food regulations:
β’ Statement-I: Incorrect β
- India DOES import apples from USA
- US apples (Washington state) entered Indian market after 2023 trade negotiations
- Prior ban lifted; imports subject to phytosanitary certification
β’ Statement-II: Correct β
- Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 + GM regulations require approval from Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC)
- No GM food can be imported/manufactured without GEAC clearance
- Applies to GM crops, ingredients, processed foods
Thus, Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
93
0.00 marks
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
1. He/She shall not preside.
2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
Speaker removal procedure (Article 94, Rules of Procedure):
β’ Statement 1: Correct β
- Rule 260: Speaker shall not preside when resolution for their removal is under consideration
- Deputy Speaker or other member presides during such proceedings
β’ Statement 2: Correct β
- Speaker has no right to speak or participate in debate on their own removal resolution
- Ensures impartiality and procedural fairness
β’ Statement 3: Incorrect β
- Speaker CAN vote in the first instance (as member) on removal resolution
- Only barred from casting tie-breaking vote (as Speaker) during such proceedings
- Rule 260(3): Speaker may vote as member but not exercise casting vote
Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
94
0.00 marks
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. 1 and 2
Explanation:
Bill lapse provisions (Article 107, 108):
β’ Statement 1: Correct β
- Article 107(3): Bill pending in Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution
- Standard parliamentary practice
β’ Statement 2: Correct β
- Article 107(4): Bill passed by LS but pending in RS lapses on LS dissolution
- Exception: Bills pending in RS but not LS do not lapse (RS is continuing house)
β’ Statement 3: Incorrect β
- Article 108(5): If President has notified intention to summon joint sitting, the bill does NOT lapse on LS dissolution
- Joint sitting can still be held after fresh LS elections to resolve deadlock
- Ensures important legislation isn't lost due to dissolution timing
Thus, statements 1 and 2 are correct.
95
0.00 marks
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. 2 and 3
Explanation:
Parliamentary procedures:
β’ Statement 1: Incorrect β
- Article 85(2): President prorogues Houses 'from time to time'
- President acts on aid and advice of Council of Ministers (Article 74)
- No discretionary power in prorogation
β’ Statement 2: Correct β
- Prorogation typically follows adjournment sine die (end of session)
- But President can prorogue even when House is in session (e.g., to cut short proceedings)
- Prorogation ends session; adjournment ends sitting
β’ Statement 3: Correct β
- Article 85(2)(b): President dissolves Lok Sabha
- Convention: Done on Council of Ministers' advice (e.g., after no-confidence, or PM's recommendation)
- 'Exceptional circumstances': Rare discretionary use (e.g., hung assembly with no viable government)
Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct.
96
0.00 marks
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
The European Parliament approved The Net-Zero Industry Act recently.
Statement-II:
The European Union intends to achieve carbon neutrality by 2040 and therefore aims to develop all of its own clean technology by that time.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
C. Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect
Explanation:
EU climate legislation:
β’ Statement-I: Correct β
- Net-Zero Industry Act (NZIA): Approved by European Parliament in March 2024
- Aims to boost EU manufacturing of clean tech (solar, wind, batteries, electrolyzers)
- Target: 40% of EU's annual deployment needs met by domestic production by 2030
β’ Statement-II: Incorrect β
- EU's carbon neutrality target is 2050 (European Climate Law), NOT 2040
- 2040 target is for 90% net GHG reduction (interim goal), not full neutrality
- NZIA does not aim for 100% domestic clean tech; focuses on strategic autonomy, not self-sufficiency
Thus, Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
97
0.00 marks
Consider the following statements:
Statement-I:
Recently, Venezuela has achieved a rapid recovery from its economic crisis and succeeded in preventing its people from fleeing/emigrating to other countries.
Statement-II:
Venezuela has the world's largest oil reserves.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II is correct
Explanation:
Venezuela's economic and migration situation:
β’ Statement-I: Incorrect β
- Venezuela continues to face severe economic crisis (hyperinflation, GDP contraction, infrastructure collapse)
- Over 7.7 million Venezuelans have emigrated since 2015 (UNHCR data)
- No evidence of 'rapid recovery' or successful prevention of emigration; outflow continues
β’ Statement-II: Correct β
- Venezuela holds world's largest proven oil reserves: ~303 billion barrels (OPEC 2023)
- Mostly heavy crude in Orinoco Belt; requires specialized refining
- Reserves not fully producible due to underinvestment, sanctions, technical challenges
Thus, Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
98
0.00 marks
With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements:
1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding.
2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitised.
3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3
Explanation:
DILRMP (Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme) features:
β’ Statement 1: Correct β
- Centrally Sponsored Scheme with 100% Central funding for components like computerization, digitization, survey/resurvey
- States implement; Centre funds fully to ensure uniform progress
β’ Statement 2: Correct β
- Core component: Digitization of Cadastral Maps (spatial records of land parcels)
- Integrated with Textual Records (RoR) for comprehensive land information system
- Enables GIS-based land management and dispute reduction
β’ Statement 3: Correct β
- 'Transliteration of Records of Rights': Initiative to convert RoR from local scripts to Constitutionally recognized languages (e.g., Devanagari for Hindi belt)
- Enhances accessibility, interoperability, and citizen services across states
Thus, all three statements 1, 2, and 3 are correct.
99
0.00 marks
With reference to the 'Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan', consider the following statements:
1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility.
2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialities can volunteer to provide services at nearby government health facilities.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. 2 only
Explanation:
PMSMA (Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan) details:
β’ Statement 1: Incorrect β
- PMSMA provides free, comprehensive antenatal care on the 9th of every month
- Covers: Check-ups, tests, counseling for pregnant women (any trimester, not just 2nd/3rd)
- Does NOT include six months post-delivery care; that's covered under other schemes (e.g., Home Based Newborn Care)
β’ Statement 2: Correct β
- 'Private Sector Participation': Specialists (OBGYN, physicians, radiologists) from private sector can volunteer on 9th of month
- Provides additional capacity in government facilities; enhances quality and access
- Part of 'Adopt a Facility' approach for public-private collaboration
Thus, only statement 2 is correct.
100
0.00 marks
With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements:
1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years.
2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary.
3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of βΉ3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years.
4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
β Unattempted
Your Answer
Not Attempted
Correct Answer
B. 2 and 3 only
Explanation:
PM-SYM scheme provisions:
β’ Statement 1: Incorrect β
- Entry age: 18 to 40 years (not 21-40)
- Allows younger workers to contribute longer for better corpus
β’ Statement 2: Correct β
- Contribution is age-specific: Younger subscribers pay less monthly; older pay more
- Example: Age 18: βΉ55/month; Age 40: βΉ200/month (to reach same corpus by 60)
- Equal contribution by Central Government
β’ Statement 3: Correct β
- Assured pension: βΉ3,000/month after age 60
- Payable for life; inflation-indexed
β’ Statement 4: Incorrect β
- Family pension: Applicable only to SPOUSE after subscriber's death
- Unmarried daughters are NOT eligible for family pension under PM-SYM
- (Contrast with other schemes like NPS where children may be nominees)
Thus, statements 2 and 3 are correct.